An adult client is admitted to the critical care unit with systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) as a result of a postburn infection. The client has a long line peripherally inserted IV catheter for fluid and medication administration and current vital signs include temperature 102.8°F (39.3°C., heart rate 108 beats/minute, respirations 32 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Provide bedside equipment for transmission and protective precautions.
Evaluate daily serum electrolytes and hydration status.
Culture sputum, urine, burn wound, and all intravenous access sites.
Implement central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) protocols.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: Providing bedside equipment for transmission and protective precautions is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a standard precaution that should be already in place for all clients in the critical care unit. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Evaluating daily serum electrolytes and hydration status is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a routine assessment that can be done later after addressing the immediate problem of infection. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: Culturing sputum, urine, burn wound, and all intravenous access sites is the first action that the nurse should implement, as this can help identify the source and type of infection, which can guide the appropriate antibiotic therapy and prevent further complications. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: Implementing central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) protocols is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a preventive measure that may not be applicable for this client who already has SIRS. This is another distractor choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Depression is a mood disorder that causes persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest. Refusing to participate in group may indicate low motivation, social withdrawal, or poor self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. The nurse should respect the client's preference and offer alternative activities or individual therapy.
Choice B reason:This client requires immediate intervention because pacing can be a sign of agitation, restlessness, or escalating mania. Clients with bipolar disorder in a manic phase may exhibit increased energy, impulsivity, irritability, and even aggression. If not addressed promptly, this behavior could escalate to disruptive outbursts, impulsive actions, or even violence toward themselves or others. The nurse should intervene by using calm communication, redirection, and possibly medication if prescribed to help de-escalate the situation and ensure safety.
Choice Creason:This scenario involves peer conflict, which is important to address, but it does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of harm. Clients with antisocial behavior often engage in conflict due to manipulative or confrontational tendencies, but being yelled at does not mean they are in immediate danger. The nurse should monitor the situation and intervene to prevent escalation, but other safety concerns take priority.
Choice D reason: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that causes extreme restriction of food intake and fear of weight gain. Refusing to eat the evening snack may indicate distorted body image, dietary rules, or anxiety, which are common factors of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should encourage the client to eat and provide support and education.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: An adolescent with multiple contusions due to a fall that occurred 2 days ago is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a stable and low-acuity client who can be safely cared for by the PN. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: A 75-year-old client with renal calculi who requires urine straining is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a routine and non-complex task that can be performed by the PN. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: A 30-year-old depressed client who admits to suicide ideation is a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is an unstable and high-risk client who requires close monitoring, assessment, and intervention by the RN. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: A 64-year-old client who had a total hip replacement the previous day is not a client that the charge nurse should assign to the RN, as this is a postoperative and moderate-acuity client who can be managed by the PN under the supervision of the RN. This is another distractor choice.
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