A client in the recovery room following a procedure is unable to void, so the nurse obtains a prescription to perform a straight catheterization. After inserting the catheter, the nurse observes that the client has an immediate output of 500 mL of clear yellow urine. Which action should the nurse implement next?
Remove the catheter and palpate the client's bladder for residual distention.
Remove the catheter and replace with an indwelling catheter.
Allow the bladder to empty completely or up to 1,000 mL of urine.
Clamp the catheter for thirty minutes and then resume draining.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A: Remove the catheter and palpate the client's bladder for residual distention. This is not the best action, as it may cause discomfort and trauma to the client. The catheter should not be removed until the bladder is fully emptied or up to 1,000 mL of urine is drained, as removing it too soon may cause urinary retention or infection.
Choice B: Remove the catheter and replace with an indwelling catheter. This is not the best action, as it may cause unnecessary exposure and trauma to the client. The catheter should not be replaced unless ordered by the healthcare provider, as replacing it may increase the risk of infection or urethral injury.
Choice C: Allow the bladder to empty completely or up to 1,000 mL of urine. This is the best action, as it can prevent bladder spasms, overdistention, or rupture. The nurse should monitor the urine output and color, and document the amount and characteristics of urine drained.
Choice D: Clamp the catheter for thirty minutes and then resume draining. This is not the best action, as it may cause pain and discomfort to the client. The catheter should not be clamped unless ordered by the healthcare provider, as clamping it may increase the risk of infection or bladder damage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression who refuses to participate in group does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Depression is a mood disorder that causes persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest. Refusing to participate in group may indicate low motivation, social withdrawal, or poor self-esteem, which are common symptoms of depression. The nurse should respect the client's preference and offer alternative activities or individual therapy.
Choice B reason:This client requires immediate intervention because pacing can be a sign of agitation, restlessness, or escalating mania. Clients with bipolar disorder in a manic phase may exhibit increased energy, impulsivity, irritability, and even aggression. If not addressed promptly, this behavior could escalate to disruptive outbursts, impulsive actions, or even violence toward themselves or others. The nurse should intervene by using calm communication, redirection, and possibly medication if prescribed to help de-escalate the situation and ensure safety.
Choice Creason:This scenario involves peer conflict, which is important to address, but it does not necessarily indicate an immediate risk of harm. Clients with antisocial behavior often engage in conflict due to manipulative or confrontational tendencies, but being yelled at does not mean they are in immediate danger. The nurse should monitor the situation and intervene to prevent escalation, but other safety concerns take priority.
Choice D reason: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa who is refusing to eat the evening snack does not require the nurse's immediate attention. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that causes extreme restriction of food intake and fear of weight gain. Refusing to eat the evening snack may indicate distorted body image, dietary rules, or anxiety, which are common factors of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should encourage the client to eat and provide support and education.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: Ask for a consultation with a psychologist. This is not the best intervention, as it does not address the physical aspect of pain management. A psychologist may help the client cope with emotional distress and cognitive-behavioral strategies to reduce pain perception, but it may not be enough to relieve severe pain.
Choice B: Arrange an appointment with a pain specialist. This is the best intervention, as it addresses the physical aspect of pain management. A pain specialist may prescribe appropriate medications, perform interventional procedures, or recommend alternative therapies to relieve severe pain.
Choice C: Contact a hospice nurse for an evaluation. This is not the best intervention, as it does not address the eligibility criteria for hospice care. Hospice care is intended for clients who have a terminal illness with a life expectancy of six months or less, and who have decided to forego curative treatments. Fibromyalgia is not a terminal illness, and hospice care may not be appropriate for this client.
Choice D: Form an interdisciplinary team for evaluation. This is not the best intervention, as it does not address the urgency of pain management. An interdisciplinary team may consist of various healthcare professionals who can provide holistic care for the client, but it may take time to coordinate and implement their services.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.