The nurse is preparing a dose of 10 mg of teriparatide. The medication is labeled 760 mcg/2.4 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)
The Correct Answer is ["31.6"]
The correct answer is : 31.6 mL
Let’s calculate this step by step:
Step 1: Convert 10 mg of teriparatide to mcg. We know that 1 mg = 1000 mcg. So, 10 mg = 10 × 1000 mcg = 10000 mcg.
Step 2: The medication is labeled as 760 mcg/2.4 ml. This means that 760 mcg of the medication is present in 2.4 mL.
Step 3: Now, we need to find out how many ml will contain 10000 mcg of the medication. We can set up a proportion to solve this:
(760 mcg / 2.4 ml) = (10000 mcg / x mL)
Step 4: Solving for x, we cross-multiply and divide:
x ml = (10000 mcg × 2.4 ml) ÷ 760 mcg
Step 5: Calculate the result:
x ml = 24000 mcg·ml ÷ 760 mcg = 31.57894736842105 mL
Step 6: If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth:
x ml = 31.6 mL
So, the nurse should administer 31.6 mL of the medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: A 14-year-old client with anorexia nervosa refusing to eat the evening snack is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice B: An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by other clients requires immediate attention. This situation can escalate quickly and may lead to physical harm or emotional distress for the client.
Choice C: A 16-year-old client diagnosed with major depression refusing to participate in group is a concern, but it’s not an immediate threat. The nurse can address this issue after dealing with more urgent situations.
Choice D: A 17-year-old client diagnosed with bipolar disorder pacing around the lobby might be experiencing agitation or restlessness, but unless they’re showing signs of immediate distress or posing a risk to themselves or others, it’s not the most urgent situation.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: Providing bedside equipment for transmission and protective precautions is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a standard precaution that should be already in place for all clients in the critical care unit. This is a distractor choice.
Choice B: Evaluating daily serum electrolytes and hydration status is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a routine assessment that can be done later after addressing the immediate problem of infection. This is another distractor choice.
Choice C: Culturing sputum, urine, burn wound, and all intravenous access sites is the first action that the nurse should implement, as this can help identify the source and type of infection, which can guide the appropriate antibiotic therapy and prevent further complications. Therefore, this is the correct choice.
Choice D: Implementing central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI) protocols is not the first action that the nurse should implement, as this is a preventive measure that may not be applicable for this client who already has SIRS. This is another distractor choice.
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