A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicated that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the nurse document in this client's record?
4-1-2-0-3
3-1-1-0-3
2-1-2-1-2
3-1-2-0-3
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.
Choice A reason:
This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.
Choice B reason:
This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).
Choice C reason:
This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.
Choice D reason:
This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.
GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because venipuncture for blood work should be avoided on the affected arm. The mastectomy may have involved the removal of lymph nodes, which can impair the lymphatic drainage and increase the risk of lymphedema (swelling) in the arm. Venipuncture can cause further damage or infection to the arm.
Choice B reason: This is correct because the BP cuff should not be applied to the affected arm. The BP cuff can exert pressure on the arm and interfere with the blood and lymph flow. This can also increase the risk of lymphedema or pain in the arm.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the affected arm should not be held down close to the woman's side. The woman should be encouraged to elevate the arm above the level of the heart and perform gentle exercises to promote circulation and prevent stiffness. The arm should not be immobilized or restricted.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the affected arm should not be used for IV therapy. IV therapy can introduce fluids or medications into the arm that can affect the blood and lymph flow. It can also cause irritation or infection to the arm.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.
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