A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:
ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.
ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.
reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination.
inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Asking the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination is not the best response, as it may delay the detection and treatment of any potential problems. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and offer her the option to reschedule or proceed with the examination.
Choice B reason: Asking the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection is a good way to assess the woman's condition and provide education, but it is not the initial response. The nurse should first inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and then ask her about her symptoms.
Choice C reason: Reassuring the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination is not true, as vaginal creams can alter the pH of the vaginal environment and affect the accuracy of the Pap test. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and explain the importance of avoiding vaginal creams, douches, or intercourse for 48 hours before the test.
Choice D reason: Informing the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Pap test for which she is scheduled is the best response, as it educates the woman about the purpose and procedure of the Pap test and allows her to make an informed decision about whether to reschedule or proceed with the examination. The nurse should also explain the risks and benefits of both options and respect the woman's choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is d. Amenorrhea.
Choice A: Chadwick’s sign is a non-specific, early sign of pregnancy that is typically characterized by a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva. The Chadwick sign can typically be observed as early as six to eight weeks after conception, and commonly disappears shortly after birth. However, it’s not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it on physical exam does not exclude a potential pregnancy.
Choice B: Hegar’s sign is a non-specific indication of pregnancy that is characterized by the compressibility and softening of the cervical isthmus (i.e., the portion of the cervix between the uterus and the vaginal portion of the cervix). It typically presents between the fourth and sixth week of pregnancy and may be present until the 12th week of pregnancy. However, the Hegar sign is not a definitive indication of pregnancy, and the absence of it does not exclude a potential pregnancy.
Choice C: A positive pregnancy test By 10 weeks, a home pregnancy test would almost certainly show a positive result if the woman is pregnant. This is because the hormone human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is produced by the placenta after implantation of the embryo into the uterine wall, would be present in high enough levels to be detected by the test. However, a positive pregnancy test is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy, but rather a probable one.
Choice D: Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods, is often considered the most presumptive sign of pregnancy. This is because it’s one of the first noticeable signs of pregnancy for many women. By 10 weeks of gestation, the woman would likely have missed two menstrual periods if she usually has regular cycles. However, while amenorrhea is a common early sign of pregnancy, it can also be caused by various other conditions or factors such as stress, significant weight loss or gain, or certain medical conditions. Therefore, a missed period should be followed up with a pregnancy test to confirm pregnancy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A sleepy, sedated affect is not a concerning sign, as it is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that can cause drowsiness, lethargy, and reduced alertness.
Choice B reason: Absent ankle clonus is not a concerning sign, as it indicates a normal neuromuscular response. Ankle clonus is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed. It is a sign of hyperreflexia, which can occur in severe preeclampsia due to increased blood pressure and cerebral edema.
Choice C reason: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min is a concerning sign, as it indicates respiratory depression. This is a serious complication of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory arrest and death. The nurse should monitor the woman's respiratory rate closely and report any signs of respiratory distress.
Choice D reason: Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are not a concerning sign, as they indicate a normal neuromuscular response. Deep tendon reflexes are graded from 0 to 4, with 2 being the average. Magnesium sulfate can cause hyporeflexia or areflexia, which are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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