A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:

ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.

ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.

reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination.

inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Asking the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination is not the best response, as it may delay the detection and treatment of any potential problems. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and offer her the option to reschedule or proceed with the examination.

Choice B reason: Asking the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection is a good way to assess the woman's condition and provide education, but it is not the initial response. The nurse should first inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and then ask her about her symptoms.

Choice C reason: Reassuring the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination is not true, as vaginal creams can alter the pH of the vaginal environment and affect the accuracy of the Pap test. The nurse should inform the woman about the possible effect of the vaginal cream on the Pap test and explain the importance of avoiding vaginal creams, douches, or intercourse for 48 hours before the test.

Choice D reason: Informing the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Pap test for which she is scheduled is the best response, as it educates the woman about the purpose and procedure of the Pap test and allows her to make an informed decision about whether to reschedule or proceed with the examination. The nurse should also explain the risks and benefits of both options and respect the woman's choice.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy. They are a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.

Choice B reason: Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. It can be detected as early as 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.

Choice C reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, as it indicates the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or blood. However, it is not a definitive sign, as other conditions can cause elevated hCG levels.

Choice D reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, which usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.

A. Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg. B. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day. C. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks. D. A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: A blood pressure increase to 138/86 mm Hg is not a concerning finding for preeclampsia. The diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia include a BP of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hours apart, or a BP of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on one occasion.

Choice B reason: Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day is not a concerning finding for preeclampsia. Edema is a common symptom of pregnancy and can be influenced by factors such as hydration, activity, and posture. Edema is not a reliable indicator of preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks is not a concerning finding for preeclampsia. The recommended weight gain for a normal-weight woman during pregnancy is 11.5 to 16 kg, with an average of 0.4 kg per week in the second and third trimesters.

Choice D reason: A dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine is a concerning finding for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is one of the hallmark signs of preeclampsia and indicates renal impairment. A dipstick value of 3+ corresponds to a protein concentration of 300 mg/dL or higher, which is considered severe.

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A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse's instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. What finding should concern her nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae (as opposed to placenta previa) is:

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A pregnant woman's diet may not meet her need for folates. A good source of this nutrient is:

The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is:

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A woman in week 34 of pregnancy reports that she is very uncomfortable because of heartburn. The nurse would suggest that the woman: (Select the one most appropriate answer.

Which finding meets the criteria of a reassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) pattern?

Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?