When evaluating a patient for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the nurse should be aware that the most common bacterial STI is:
syphilis.
candidiasis.
gonorrhea.
chlamydia.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Syphilis is a bacterial STI caused by Treponema pallidum. It is characterized by three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. It can cause serious complications such as neurosyphilis, cardiovascular syphilis, and congenital syphilis. However, it is not the most common bacterial STI.
Choice B reason: Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida albicans. It is not a STI, but rather an opportunistic infection that can affect the vagina, mouth, skin, or other mucous membranes. It can cause symptoms such as itching, burning, discharge, and inflammation.
Choice C reason: Gonorrhea is a bacterial STI caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can infect the urethra, cervix, rectum, throat, or eyes. It can cause symptoms such as dysuria, discharge, pelvic pain, and bleeding. It can also lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, infertility, and disseminated gonococcal infection. However, it is not the most common bacterial STI.
Choice D reason: Chlamydia is a bacterial STI caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is the most common bacterial STI, affecting about 2.86 million people in the United States in 2018. It can infect the urethra, cervix, rectum, throat, or eyes. It can cause symptoms such as dysuria, discharge, pelvic pain, and bleeding. It can also lead to complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, epididymitis, infertility, and ectopic pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Biophysical profile is a test that assesses the fetal well-being by measuring five parameters: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal heart rate. It does not predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
Choice B reason: Lecithin/sphingomyelin [L/S] ratio is a test that measures the amount of two phospholipids in the amniotic fluid. It is used to evaluate the fetal lung maturity and the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. It does not predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
Choice C reason: Type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum is a test that determines the blood type and Rh factor of the mother and the fetus. It is used to identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn due to Rh incompatibility. It does not predict chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
Choice D reason: Multiple-marker screening is a test that measures the levels of four substances in the maternal serum: alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, unconjugated estriol, and inhibin A. It is used to estimate the risk of Down syndrome, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects in the fetus.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: A previous birth of a large infant (macrosomia) is a risk factor for gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). A large infant may indicate that the mother had high blood glucose levels during pregnancy, which can cause the fetus to grow larger than normal. Women who have had a large infant are more likely to develop GDM in subsequent pregnancies.
Choice B reason: Underweight before pregnancy is not a risk factor for GDM. In fact, being overweight or obese before pregnancy is a risk factor for GDM, as it increases insulin resistance and makes it harder for the body to use glucose effectively.
Choice C reason: A previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for GDM. It is a contraindication for GDM, as it means that the woman already has diabetes before pregnancy. GDM is a condition that develops during pregnancy and usually resolves after delivery.
Choice D reason: Maternal age younger than 25 years is not a risk factor for GDM. In fact, being older than 25 years is a risk factor for GDM, as it increases the risk of insulin resistance and other metabolic changes that can affect glucose tolerance.
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