The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is:
ceftriaxone.
penicillin G.
acyclovir.
tetracycline.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, painless uterine contractions that occur throughout pregnancy. They are a probable sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.
Choice B reason: Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife is a positive sign of pregnancy, as it confirms the presence of a living fetus in the uterus. It can be detected as early as 16 to 20 weeks of gestation.
Choice C reason: A positive pregnancy test is a probable sign of pregnancy, as it indicates the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or blood. However, it is not a definitive sign, as other conditions can cause elevated hCG levels.
Choice D reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the mother, which usually occurs between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. It is a presumptive sign of pregnancy, not a positive sign.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: An antiemetic such as pyridoxine may be used to control vomiting in women with hyperemesis gravidarum, but it is not the initial treatment. The first priority is to restore fluid and electrolyte balance and prevent dehydration and hypovolemia.
Choice B reason: IV therapy is the initial treatment for women with hyperemesis gravidarum. It helps to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances, prevent dehydration and hypovolemia, and restore normal blood pressure and urine output. IV fluids may also contain glucose, vitamins, and electrolytes to replenish losses.
Choice C reason: Enteral nutrition may be used to meet nutritional needs in women with hyperemesis gravidarum, but it is not the initial treatment. Enteral nutrition involves feeding through a tube inserted into the stomach or intestine. It may be considered if oral intake is not tolerated or adequate after IV therapy.
Choice D reason: Corticosteroids are not used to treat hyperemesis gravidarum. They are used to reduce inflammation in conditions such as asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, and allergic reactions. They have no effect on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
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