The drug of choice for treatment of gonorrhea is:
ceftriaxone.
penicillin G.
acyclovir.
tetracycline.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Abstinence is the avoidance of sexual activity, which reduces the risk of exposure to STIs. It is not a sexual risk behavior.
Choice B reason: Multiple sex partners increases the likelihood of exposure to STIs, especially if the partners are not tested or treated. It is a sexual risk behavior.
Choice C reason: Unprotected anal intercourse exposes the mucous membranes of the rectum and anus to potential pathogens, which can cause STIs such as gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, and HIV. It is a sexual risk behavior.
Choice D reason: Oral sex involves contact between the mouth and the genitals or anus, which can transmit STIs such as herpes, HPV, gonorrhea, and syphilis. It is a sexual risk behavior.
Choice E reason: Dry kissing is the contact between the lips without the exchange of saliva, which does not transmit STIs. It is not a sexual risk behavior.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Cramping is a common symptom of pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, due to the stretching of the ligaments and muscles that support the uterus. It is not a specific sign of abruptio placentae, which is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall.
Choice B reason: Uterine activity is a normal phenomenon of pregnancy, as the uterus contracts and relaxes periodically. It is not a specific sign of abruptio placentae, which is associated with increased uterine tone and tenderness.
Choice C reason: Bleeding is a possible sign of both abruptio placentae and placenta previa, which is the implantation of the placenta over or near the cervical os. However, bleeding is more common and severe in placenta previa than in abruptio placentae, as the latter can have concealed hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: Intense abdominal pain is the most prevalent clinical manifestation of abruptio placentae, as the blood accumulates behind the placenta and causes pressure and irritation of the uterine nerves. It is a distinguishing sign from placenta previa, which is usually painless.
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