How is fetal well-being during labor assessed?
An FHR greater than 110 beats/min.
Maternal pain control.
The response of the FHR to UCs.
Accelerations in the FHR.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: An FHR greater than 110 beats/min is not a sufficient indicator of fetal well-being during labor. The normal range of FHR is between 110 and 160 beats/min, but it can vary depending on the gestational age, fetal activity, and maternal factors. A high or low FHR may indicate fetal distress or compromise.
Choice B reason: Maternal pain control is not a direct measure of fetal well-being during labor. However, maternal pain can affect the FHR indirectly by causing maternal stress, anxiety, or hyperventilation, which can alter the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Therefore, adequate pain management is important for both maternal and fetal health.
Choice C reason: The response of the FHR to UCs is the most reliable and accurate way of assessing fetal well-being during labor. UCs can cause temporary reductions in the blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, which can affect the FHR. A normal response of the FHR to UCs is either no change or a slight increase (acceleration), which indicates a well-oxygenated and resilient fetus. An abnormal response of the FHR to UCs is a decrease (deceleration), which indicates a compromised or hypoxic fetus.
Choice D reason: Accelerations in the FHR are not a definitive measure of fetal well-being during labor. Accelerations are transient increases in the FHR above the baseline, usually caused by fetal movement, stimulation, or UCs. Accelerations are generally reassuring and indicate a responsive and well-oxygenated fetus, but they are not always present or consistent. The absence of accelerations does not necessarily mean fetal distress, as some fetuses may have periods of sleep or reduced activity.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: HSV-2 is a viral infection that causes genital herpes. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can cause painful blisters and ulcers in the genital area. The primary infection is usually the most severe and lasts for several weeks. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate periodically, causing recurrent episodes of genital herpes. The frequency and severity of the recurrences vary from person to person.
Choice B reason: HPV is a viral infection that causes genital warts and cervical cancer. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can infect the skin and mucous membranes of the genital area. The primary infection is often asymptomatic and may clear spontaneously or persist for years. HPV does not cause recurrent episodes of genital warts or cervical cancer, but it can increase the risk of developing these conditions over time.
Choice C reason: CMV is a viral infection that causes flu-like symptoms and can affect various organs. It is transmitted through bodily fluids such as saliva, urine, blood, and semen. The primary infection is usually mild and may go unnoticed. After the primary infection, the virus remains latent in the body and can reactivate in people with weakened immune systems, causing serious complications. CMV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or organ damage, but it can worsen the condition of people with HIV or AIDS.
Choice D reason: HIV is a viral infection that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusion, or sharing of needles. The primary infection is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms and lasts for a few weeks. After the primary infection, the virus gradually destroys the immune system and makes the person vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers. HIV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or AIDS, but it can progress to AIDS over time.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
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