Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: HSV-2 is a viral infection that causes genital herpes. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can cause painful blisters and ulcers in the genital area. The primary infection is usually the most severe and lasts for several weeks. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate periodically, causing recurrent episodes of genital herpes. The frequency and severity of the recurrences vary from person to person.
Choice B reason: HPV is a viral infection that causes genital warts and cervical cancer. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can infect the skin and mucous membranes of the genital area. The primary infection is often asymptomatic and may clear spontaneously or persist for years. HPV does not cause recurrent episodes of genital warts or cervical cancer, but it can increase the risk of developing these conditions over time.
Choice C reason: CMV is a viral infection that causes flu-like symptoms and can affect various organs. It is transmitted through bodily fluids such as saliva, urine, blood, and semen. The primary infection is usually mild and may go unnoticed. After the primary infection, the virus remains latent in the body and can reactivate in people with weakened immune systems, causing serious complications. CMV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or organ damage, but it can worsen the condition of people with HIV or AIDS.
Choice D reason: HIV is a viral infection that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusion, or sharing of needles. The primary infection is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms and lasts for a few weeks. After the primary infection, the virus gradually destroys the immune system and makes the person vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers. HIV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or AIDS, but it can progress to AIDS over time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Infection is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Marginal placenta previa is a type of placenta previa where the edge of the placenta is near the cervical os but does not cover it. It can cause painless bleeding during pregnancy or labor, but it does not increase the risk of infection.
Choice B reason: Hemorrhage is the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it can occur due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall during labor or delivery. The bleeding can be profuse and life-threatening, and it requires prompt intervention and monitoring.
Choice C reason: Urinary retention is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely, and it can occur due to various factors such as anesthesia, trauma, or medication. It can cause discomfort, infection, or bladder distension, but it is not as serious as hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: Thrombophlebitis is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot, and it can occur due to prolonged bed rest, dehydration, or injury. It can cause pain, swelling, or redness in the affected area, and it can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs. However, it is not as common or as severe as hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is: B. 3-1-1-0-3.
Choice A reason:
This option suggests the woman has been pregnant four times, which is incorrect. She has had three pregnancies: one set of twins (counted as one pregnancy) and two singletons.
Choice B reason:
This is the correct option. The woman has had three pregnancies (Gravida = 3), one full-term delivery (Term = 1), one preterm delivery (the twins, Preterm = 1), no abortions (Abortions = 0), and three living children (Living = 3).
Choice C reason:
This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries and one abortion, neither of which is indicated in the woman's history.
Choice D reason:
This option incorrectly suggests two preterm deliveries (the twins are counted as one preterm delivery) and does not accurately reflect the woman's history.
GTPAL stands for Gravida (total number of pregnancies), Term births (deliveries after 37 weeks), Preterm births (deliveries between 20-36 weeks), Abortions (losses before 20 weeks), and Living children. Normal ranges: Term (≥37 weeks), Preterm (20-36 weeks)
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.