Which viral sexually transmitted infection is characterized by a primary infection followed by recurrent episodes?
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)-2
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: HSV-2 is a viral infection that causes genital herpes. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can cause painful blisters and ulcers in the genital area. The primary infection is usually the most severe and lasts for several weeks. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate periodically, causing recurrent episodes of genital herpes. The frequency and severity of the recurrences vary from person to person.
Choice B reason: HPV is a viral infection that causes genital warts and cervical cancer. It is transmitted through sexual contact and can infect the skin and mucous membranes of the genital area. The primary infection is often asymptomatic and may clear spontaneously or persist for years. HPV does not cause recurrent episodes of genital warts or cervical cancer, but it can increase the risk of developing these conditions over time.
Choice C reason: CMV is a viral infection that causes flu-like symptoms and can affect various organs. It is transmitted through bodily fluids such as saliva, urine, blood, and semen. The primary infection is usually mild and may go unnoticed. After the primary infection, the virus remains latent in the body and can reactivate in people with weakened immune systems, causing serious complications. CMV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or organ damage, but it can worsen the condition of people with HIV or AIDS.
Choice D reason: HIV is a viral infection that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). It is transmitted through sexual contact, blood transfusion, or sharing of needles. The primary infection is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms and lasts for a few weeks. After the primary infection, the virus gradually destroys the immune system and makes the person vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers. HIV does not cause recurrent episodes of flu-like symptoms or AIDS, but it can progress to AIDS over time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement by the pregnant woman, usually felt between 16 and 20 weeks of gestation. However, quickening can also be confused with gas or peristalsis, which are normal digestive processes that cause sensations in the abdomen.
Choice B reason: Chadwick sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to increased blood flow during pregnancy. It can be observed by the examiner as early as 6 weeks of gestation. However, Chadwick sign can also be caused by pelvic congestion, which is a chronic condition of enlarged and dilated veins in the pelvis².
Choice C reason: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods, which is one of the most common signs of pregnancy. However, amenorrhea can also be caused by stress, endocrine problems, or other factors that affect the hormonal balance and ovulation.
Choice D reason: Goodell sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity and edema during pregnancy. It can be palpated by the examiner around 6 to 8 weeks of gestation. Goodell sign is not associated with any other condition besides pregnancy, unlike cervical polyps, which are benign growths of the cervical tissue that can cause bleeding or discharge.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Vibroacoustic stimulation is a technique that uses sound to stimulate the fetus and elicit a response. It is sometimes used in conjunction with the nonstress test (NST), not the CST. The NST measures the fetal heart rate (FHR) in response to fetal movement, while the CST measures the FHR in response to uterine contractions.
Choice B reason: A negative CST result means that the FHR does not show any late decelerations during at least three contractions in a 10-minute period. Late decelerations are decreases in the FHR that begin after the peak of a contraction and return to the baseline after the contraction ends. They indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which means that the placenta is not delivering enough oxygen and nutrients to the fetus. A negative CST result is reassuring and suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and can tolerate labor².
Choice C reason: The CST is not an invasive test, as it does not involve inserting any instruments or devices into the uterus or the fetus. However, it does require stimulating contractions, either by giving the pregnant woman oxytocin (a hormone that causes uterine contractions) or by having her rub her nipples (which also releases oxytocin). The contractions can be uncomfortable and may trigger preterm labor in some cases.
Choice D reason: The CST is not more effective than the NST if the membranes have already been ruptured. In fact, the CST is contraindicated (not recommended) in women who have ruptured membranes, as it can increase the risk of infection and bleeding. The NST is a safer and simpler alternative to the CST, as it does not require stimulating contractions. However, the NST may not be as reliable as the CST in detecting fetal compromise.
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