A woman diagnosed with marginal placenta previa gave birth vaginally 15 minutes ago. At the present time she is at the greatest risk for:
infection.
hemorrhage.
urinary retention.
thrombophlebitis.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Infection is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Marginal placenta previa is a type of placenta previa where the edge of the placenta is near the cervical os but does not cover it. It can cause painless bleeding during pregnancy or labor, but it does not increase the risk of infection.
Choice B reason: Hemorrhage is the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it can occur due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall during labor or delivery. The bleeding can be profuse and life-threatening, and it requires prompt intervention and monitoring.
Choice C reason: Urinary retention is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Urinary retention is the inability to empty the bladder completely, and it can occur due to various factors such as anesthesia, trauma, or medication. It can cause discomfort, infection, or bladder distension, but it is not as serious as hemorrhage.
Choice D reason: Thrombophlebitis is not the greatest risk for a woman with marginal placenta previa, as it is not directly related to the condition. Thrombophlebitis is the inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot, and it can occur due to prolonged bed rest, dehydration, or injury. It can cause pain, swelling, or redness in the affected area, and it can lead to pulmonary embolism if the clot dislodges and travels to the lungs. However, it is not as common or as severe as hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin that is effective against Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the bacteria that causes gonorrhea. It is administered as a single intramuscular injection and has a high cure rate.
Choice B reason: Penicillin G is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea because of the widespread resistance of N. gonorrhoeae to this antibiotic. Penicillin G may be used in combination with other drugs for some cases of gonorrhea, but it is not the first-line treatment.
Choice C reason: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial infections like gonorrhea. Acyclovir has no effect on N. gonorrhoeae and is not indicated for gonorrhea treatment.
Choice D reason: Tetracycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can be used to treat some bacterial infections, but it is not the drug of choice for gonorrhea. Tetracycline has a lower efficacy and a higher rate of adverse effects than ceftriaxone for gonorrhea treatment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: An FHR greater than 110 beats/min is not a sufficient indicator of fetal well-being during labor. The normal range of FHR is between 110 and 160 beats/min, but it can vary depending on the gestational age, fetal activity, and maternal factors. A high or low FHR may indicate fetal distress or compromise.
Choice B reason: Maternal pain control is not a direct measure of fetal well-being during labor. However, maternal pain can affect the FHR indirectly by causing maternal stress, anxiety, or hyperventilation, which can alter the blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Therefore, adequate pain management is important for both maternal and fetal health.
Choice C reason: The response of the FHR to UCs is the most reliable and accurate way of assessing fetal well-being during labor. UCs can cause temporary reductions in the blood flow and oxygen supply to the fetus, which can affect the FHR. A normal response of the FHR to UCs is either no change or a slight increase (acceleration), which indicates a well-oxygenated and resilient fetus. An abnormal response of the FHR to UCs is a decrease (deceleration), which indicates a compromised or hypoxic fetus.
Choice D reason: Accelerations in the FHR are not a definitive measure of fetal well-being during labor. Accelerations are transient increases in the FHR above the baseline, usually caused by fetal movement, stimulation, or UCs. Accelerations are generally reassuring and indicate a responsive and well-oxygenated fetus, but they are not always present or consistent. The absence of accelerations does not necessarily mean fetal distress, as some fetuses may have periods of sleep or reduced activity.
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