Magnesium Sulfate is being administered intravenously to a client for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a complication of this treatment?
Respiratory rate of 10 bpm.
Blood pressure of 148/94.
Deep tendon reflexes of +2.
Urine output of 70ml/hour.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
A respiratory rate of 10 bpm is significantly lower than the normal range for adults, which is typically 12-20 breaths per minute. This finding suggests respiratory depression, a potential complication of magnesium sulfate administration. Magnesium sulfate, when given intravenously, can lead to respiratory depression, hypotension, and loss of deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring respiratory rate is crucial to detect early signs of respiratory depression, allowing prompt intervention to prevent respiratory failure.
Choice B rationale:
A blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg is elevated and indicates hypertension. While hypertension is a known side effect of magnesium sulfate, a blood pressure reading alone is not specific enough to indicate a complication of treatment. It is essential to consider other vital signs and symptoms for a comprehensive assessment.
Choice C rationale:
Deep tendon reflexes of +2 are within the normal range and do not indicate a complication of magnesium sulfate administration. Hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflexes) is a sign of magnesium toxicity, but +2 reflexes are normal. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial, but the given value is within the normal range.
Choice D rationale:
An urine output of 70 ml/hour is within the normal range of urine output (30-60 ml/hour) for adults. While monitoring urine output is essential to assess renal function, this value does not indicate a complication of magnesium sulfate administration. Decreased urine output could suggest kidney injury, which is a potential complication of magnesium sulfate, but 70 ml/hour is within the normal range.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The dosage prescribed for the child is 40 mg/kg/day, twice a day for 10 days. The child weighs 44 lbs, which is approximately 20 kg (1 lb = 0.45 kg). Therefore, the total daily dosage would be 40 mg/kg * 20 kg = 800 mg. This is split into two doses, so each dose would be 400 mg, not 400 mg per 5 ml as in the suspension.
Choice B rationale:
As explained above, the total daily dosage is 800 mg, split into two doses of 400 mg each. The suspension is written as 400 mg/5 ml, so one dose would be 400 mg.
Choice C rationale:
This choice is incorrect because it does not accurately calculate the dosage based on the child's weight and the prescribed dosage regimen.
Choice D rationale:
This choice is incorrect because it suggests a higher dose than what is prescribed. The correct dosage, based on the child's weight and prescription, is 800 mg per day, split into two doses of 400 mg each.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots with a red halo that appear inside the mouth on the buccal mucosa. They are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola). Measles is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by fever, cough, runny nose, and a distinctive red rash. The presence of Koplik's spots is a specific diagnostic feature of measles, making choice A incorrect for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Koplik's spots are a classic sign of measles (rubeola). These spots typically appear a few days before the onset of the measles rash and are highly indicative of the disease. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets. It is essential to recognize Koplik's spots as they provide an early clue to the diagnosis of measles, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions and prevent the further spread of the disease.
Choice C rationale:
Chickenpox (varicella) presents with an itchy rash that progresses to fluid-filled blisters. However, Koplik's spots are not associated with chickenpox. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is characterized by a widespread rash, fever, and general discomfort. Koplik's spots are specific to measles and do not occur in chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Exanthema subitum, also known as roseola, is a viral illness that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by high fever followed by a rash. However, Koplik's spots are not a feature of roseola. The rash in roseola appears after the fever subsides and is typically pink or red, differentiating it from the small white spots seen in measles.
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