In reviewing admission orders for a patient admitted with SIADH, the nurse should question which order?

IV 3% NS at 10 mL/hr

Seizure precautions

Fluid restriction of 1000 mL/day

Sodium-restricted diet

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. In SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion), the body retains excessive water, leading to dilutional hyponatremia (low sodium levels). Administering hypertonic saline (3% NS) can exacerbate the condition by rapidly increasing sodium levels, which may cause demyelination of neurons (a condition called osmotic demyelination syndrome). Hypertonic saline is typically only used in severe hyponatremia with neurologic symptoms and should be carefully monitored.
B. Seizure precautions are appropriate in SIADH due to the risk of seizures from severe hyponatremia, which can lead to cerebral edema and neurological compromise.
C. Fluid restriction of 1000 mL/day is appropriate in SIADH to manage the dilutional hyponatremia by preventing further fluid retention.
D. A sodium-restricted diet is also recommended in SIADH to avoid further dilution of sodium levels and prevent worsening of hyponatremia.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. HCO3 (bicarbonate) levels above 26 mEq/L indicate alkalosis, not acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, the HCO3 levels would be low as the body attempts to neutralize excess acid.
B. In metabolic acidosis, the pH is expected to be below 7.35 because metabolic acidosis indicates an accumulation of acid or loss of bicarbonate, which lowers the blood pH.
C. PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) below 70 mm Hg typically indicates hypoxemia, not necessarily metabolic acidosis. The primary concern with metabolic acidosis is the balance of acid-base status, not oxygenation.
D. PaCO2 above 45 mm Hg would suggest respiratory acidosis rather than metabolic acidosis. In metabolic acidosis, the body compensates by hyperventilating to blow off CO2 and raise the pH, resulting in a normal or low PaCO2.

A. Stop the infusion. B. Elevate the head of the bed. C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds. D. Call the client's provider.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The client is likely experiencing an allergic reaction to penicillin, such as anaphylaxis, which can cause symptoms like itching, dizziness, and difficulty breathing. The first step is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further exposure to the allergen.
B. Elevating the head of the bed might be helpful if the client is experiencing respiratory distress, but stopping the infusion is the priority action.
C. Auscultating the client's breath sounds may be useful later to assess the severity of respiratory distress, but it is not the first action in an acute allergic reaction.
D. Calling the provider is important, but the immediate priority is stopping the infusion to prevent further harm from the allergic reaction.

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In reviewing admission orders for a patient admitted with SIADH, the nurse should question which order?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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