If a woman has a pre-existing condition of diabetes, the nurse knows that she would be at risk for what symptom(s) during her pregnancy?
Select one:

Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.

Postpartum hemorrhage.

Cerebrovascular accident (CVA).

Acute vasospasm.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: Episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia. This is because episodes of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common complications of diabetes during pregnancy, which can aﬀect both the mother and the fetus. Hypoglycemia is a condition where the blood glucose level drops below the normal range, which can cause symptoms such as sweating, trembling, hunger, confusion, or loss of consciousness. Hyperglycemia is a condition where the blood glucose level rises above the normal range, which can cause symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, fatigue, blurred vision, or ketoacidosis. Diabetes during pregnancy requires careful monitoring and management of blood glucose levels to prevent adverse outcomes such as fetal macrosomia, congenital anomalies, stillbirth, or neonatal hypoglycemia.

Choice B Reason: Postpartum hemorrhage. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent complication that may occur after delivery, not during pregnancy. Postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract after delivery, which can cause hypovolemic shock, anemia, or death. Postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, retained placenta, lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

Choice C Reason: Cerebrovascular accident (CVA). This is an incorrect answer that indicates a rare and severe complication that may occur during or after pregnancy, not specifically related to diabetes. CVA is also known as stroke, which is an interruption of blood ﬂow to the brain due to ischemia or hemorrhage, which can cause neurological deficits or death. CVA can be caused by hypertension, preeclampsia-eclampsia, thrombophilia, or vascular malformations.

Choice D Reason: Acute vasospasm. This is an incorrect answer that suggests a diﬀerent condition that may occur during pregnancy, not associated with diabetes. Acute vasospasm is also known as Raynaud's phenomenon, which is a disorder of blood vessels that causes them to narrow and reduce blood ﬂow to the extremities in response to cold or stress, which can cause pain, numbness, or color changes. Acute vasospasm can be triggered by smoking, medications, or autoimmune diseases.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.

Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.

Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.

Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.

A. A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with one acceleration to 155 for 15 seconds within 30 minutes. B. A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with two accelerations to 160 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. C. A fetal heart rate baseline of 130 with two accelerations to 135 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. D. A fetal heart rate baseline of 150 with two accelerations to 160 for 10 seconds within 20 minutes.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with one acceleration to 155 for 15 seconds within 30 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. A non-reactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia, distress, or sleep, but it does not necessarily indicate a problem. A non-reactive NST may require further testing or stimulation to elicit a reactive result.

Choice B Reason A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with two accelerations to 160 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is because this strip meets the criteria for a reactive NST, which is a non-invasive test that evaluates fetal well- being and oxygenation by measuring the fetal heart rate response to fetal movements. A reactive NST is defined as having at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate that are at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline and last for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.

Choice C Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 130 with two accelerations to 135 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in amplitude, as they are only 5 beats per minute above the baseline, instead of at least 15 beats per minute.

Choice D Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 150 with two accelerations to 160 for 10 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in duration, as they last only for 10 seconds, instead of at least 15 seconds.

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If a woman has a pre-existing condition of diabetes, the nurse knows that she would be at risk for what symptom(s) during her pregnancy? Select one:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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If a woman has a pre-existing condition of diabetes, the nurse knows that she would be at risk for what symptom(s) during her pregnancy?
Select one: