Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client's blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DTs)?
Prochlorperazine 5 mg IM.
Hydromorphone 2 mg IM.
Lorazepam 2 mg IM.
Chlorpromazine 50 mg IM.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic and antipsychotic medication used to treat nausea, vomiting, and psychotic disorders, but it is not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. B. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic and would not be appropriate for the treatment of delirium tremens.
C. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine medication commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including delirium tremens.
D. Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat psychotic disorders and would not be the first-line choice for managing delirium tremens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The nurse acted appropriately by disclosing information to the therapist and other team members to ensure the client's safety and well-being. However, educating other team members on appropriate sharing of client information may be necessary to ensure consistency and adherence to privacy laws and ethical guidelines.
B. Both the nurse and therapist acted in the client's best interest by sharing relevant information with appropriate team members to ensure safety. However, reprimanding them may not be warranted if their actions were based on concerns for the client's safety.
C. This outcome acknowledges the importance of educating team members on confidentiality and appropriate sharing of client information to maintain trust and privacy while ensuring client safety.
D. While the therapist did share confidential information with the client's supervisor, it was done in the context of ensuring the safety of all involved parties. Therefore, reprimanding the therapist may not be appropriate in this situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Shortness of breath and diaphoresis are more indicative of a medical condition such as a panic attack or cardiovascular problem rather than a conversion disorder.
B. Sudden blindness with no organic pathology suggests a functional neurological symptom disorder, which falls under the category of conversion disorder.
C. Continuous complaints of headache and back pain could be symptoms of various medical conditions and may not specifically indicate a conversion disorder.
D. Extreme anxiety about going outside may indicate agoraphobia or another anxiety disorder rather than a conversion disorder.
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