A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone. When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine for dystonia.
Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client's symptoms, including a laterally contracted position and perception of body contortion, suggest acute dystonia, a known side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Administering an anticholinergic such as benztropine can help alleviate these symptoms.
B. Offering a hot pack for muscle spasms may provide some relief for generalized muscle discomfort but would not specifically address the dystonic reaction.
C. Directing the client to occupational therapy may be beneficial for overall treatment but does not address the immediate need to alleviate acute dystonic symptoms.
D. Thioridazine is an antipsychotic medication but is not typically used as a first-line treatment for acute dystonia. Administering benztropine, an anticholinergic, would be more appropriate for dystonia associated with risperidone use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["suicidal ideation"," assessment of risk factors for suicide"]
Explanation
In the context of mental health care, a statement by a client expressing a wish to have died in a traumatic event is indicative of suicidal ideation. This is a serious concern and warrants immediate and careful attention from the healthcare provider. The appropriate response involves conducting a thorough assessment of risk factors for suicide, which may include evaluating the client's mental health history, current stressors, support systems, and any previous suicide attempts or self-harm behavior. This assessment is crucial in determining the level of risk and the need for potential interventions, which may range from close monitoring to emergency psychiatric evaluation. It is essential for healthcare professionals to approach such situations with sensitivity, providing support and ensuring the safety of the client as a priority.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
A. Suicide is a potential risk following sexual assault due to the emotional trauma that can ensue; however, it is not specific to males and therefore not the best answer in this context.
B. Depression is a common sequela of sexual assault among survivors due to the significant psychological impact of the trauma, which can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities once enjoyed.
C. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is another frequent outcome of sexual assault, characterized by persistent mental and emotional stress as a result of injury or severe psychological shock. PTSD can manifest in nightmares, flashbacks, and severe anxiety, as well as uncontrollable thoughts about the event.
D. Becoming an abuser is a potential outcome for some survivors of sexual assault, but it is not one of the most common sequelae and is not supported by the literature as a primary risk for male survivors.
E. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a risk in cases of sexual assault where the transmission of bodily fluids occurs, but it is not a psychological sequela and thus not relevant to the question.
F. Chlamydia, like HIV, is a sexually transmitted infection that can be a risk in cases of sexual assault involving transmission of bodily fluids. However, it is not a psychological sequela and is not specific to the male gender in the context of sexual assault risk factors.
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