Diabetes in pregnancy puts the fetus at risk in several ways.
Nurses should be aware that:.
With good control of maternal glucose levels, sudden and unexplained stillbirth is no longer a major concern.
The most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is congenital malformations.
Infants of mothers with diabetes have the same risks for respiratory distress syndrome because of careful monitoring.
At birth, the neonate of a diabetic mother is no longer at any greater risk.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
With good control of maternal glucose levels, sudden and unexplained stillbirth is no longer a major concern. While controlling maternal glucose levels is important in diabetic pregnancies, it does not eliminate all risks, including the risk of stillbirth. However, the most significant cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancies is congenital malformations. Poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy can lead to structural abnormalities in the fetus, increasing the risk of perinatal loss.
Choice B rationale:
The most important cause of perinatal loss in diabetic pregnancy is congenital malformations. This is the correct answer. Poorly controlled diabetes increases the risk of congenital malformations in the fetus, making it a significant concern in diabetic pregnancies. Proper management of diabetes and prenatal care are essential to reduce this risk.
Choice C rationale:
Infants of mothers with diabetes have the same risks for respiratory distress syndrome because of careful monitoring. Infants of mothers with diabetes are at an increased risk of respiratory distress syndrome due to delayed lung maturation. Careful monitoring is essential, but it does not eliminate this risk. Proper management and timely interventions are necessary to minimize the impact of respiratory distress syndrome in these infants.
Choice D rationale:
At birth, the neonate of a diabetic mother is no longer at any greater risk. Infants of diabetic mothers are at increased risk for various complications, both during and after birth. These risks include hypoglycemia, respiratory distress syndrome, and hypocalcemia, among others. Close monitoring and appropriate interventions are required to ensure the well-being of the newborn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth indicates that the infant is in excellent condition, adjusting well to extrauterine life, and requires no further testing or interventions at that moment. The Apgar score assesses the baby's heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflexes, and color, with a maximum score of 10. An Apgar score of 10 suggests that the baby is pink, has a heart rate above 100 beats per minute, exhibits strong cries, has active motion, and demonstrates good muscle tone.
Choice B rationale:
An Apgar score of 10 does not indicate severe distress requiring resuscitation. A low Apgar score (typically below 7) at 1 minute may prompt further evaluation and interventions to support the baby's transition to extrauterine life.
Choice C rationale:
While a high Apgar score is reassuring, it does not predict a future free of neurologic problems. The Apgar score assesses the baby's current condition and provides a snapshot of their overall well-being at birth.
Choice D rationale:
Although the Apgar score is assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, a score of 10 at 1 minute suggests that the baby is doing well at that moment. However, the baby should still be assessed again at 5 minutes to ensure continued stability and appropriate interventions if necessary.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Koplik's spots are small white or bluish-white spots with a red halo that appear inside the mouth on the buccal mucosa. They are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola). Measles is a highly contagious viral infection characterized by fever, cough, runny nose, and a distinctive red rash. The presence of Koplik's spots is a specific diagnostic feature of measles, making choice A incorrect for this scenario.
Choice B rationale:
Koplik's spots are a classic sign of measles (rubeola). These spots typically appear a few days before the onset of the measles rash and are highly indicative of the disease. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that spreads through respiratory droplets. It is essential to recognize Koplik's spots as they provide an early clue to the diagnosis of measles, enabling healthcare providers to take appropriate precautions and prevent the further spread of the disease.
Choice C rationale:
Chickenpox (varicella) presents with an itchy rash that progresses to fluid-filled blisters. However, Koplik's spots are not associated with chickenpox. Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and is characterized by a widespread rash, fever, and general discomfort. Koplik's spots are specific to measles and do not occur in chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Exanthema subitum, also known as roseola, is a viral illness that primarily affects infants and young children. It is characterized by high fever followed by a rash. However, Koplik's spots are not a feature of roseola. The rash in roseola appears after the fever subsides and is typically pink or red, differentiating it from the small white spots seen in measles.
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