At 1200, the practical nurse (PN) learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
Administer half of the missed dose immediately.
Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose.
Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs.
Administer the missed dose as soon as possible.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Administering half of the missed dose is not generally recommended because it could lead to inconsistent drug levels and potential for breakthrough seizures. The standard practice is to follow the dosing schedule unless otherwise instructed by the healthcare provider.
B. Giving the missed dose with the next scheduled dose may lead to double dosing and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. The missed dose should be addressed as soon as possible but not in combination with the next dose.
C. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs could put the client at risk for seizures. Anticonvulsants should be administered as per the prescribed schedule to maintain therapeutic drug levels and prevent seizures.
D. Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is the correct approach, following standard guidelines for missed medications. The missed dose should be given promptly unless it is close to the time of the next dose, in which case the next dose should be given as scheduled.
 
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering ketorolac does not require specific timing in relation to meals. It can be given with or without food, but the key considerations are related to the drug’s effects rather than meal timing.
B. Ketorolac does not require peak and trough serum level monitoring. This practice is more relevant for medications with narrow therapeutic ranges or those requiring precise dosage adjustments, which is not the case for ketorolac.
C. Observing for involuntary movements of the lips and tongue is not a primary concern for ketorolac therapy. This is more relevant to medications like antipsychotics that can cause extrapyramidal symptoms.
D. Assessing the skin daily for signs of bleeding is crucial because ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding due to its effects on platelet function and gastrointestinal mucosa.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Breast tenderness is a common side effect of oral contraceptives and is generally not a cause for immediate concern unless accompanied by other symptoms.
B. Left calf pain is a significant finding that could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious condition requiring prompt evaluation and potential treatment to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism.
C. A change in menstrual flow can occur with oral contraceptives but is usually less critical than other symptoms. It should be monitored but does not indicate an immediate problem.
D. A weight gain of 5 pounds is a relatively minor side effect and not as urgent as symptoms suggestive of a serious condition like DVT.
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