A client is voiding frequent small amounts 24-hours following the removal of an indwelling catheter, and a post-voided residual volume assessment is prescribed. Which explanation should the practical nurse (PN) provide to the client about why the procedure is necessary?
The catheterization is part of the prescribed bladder retraining program.
The catheterized volume determines the need to re-insert the indwelling catheter.
The catheterization will stimulate the bladder to empty more completely.
The catheterization procedure is an exercise in stimulus-response conditioning.
The Correct Answer is B
A. The post-voided residual volume assessment is not part of a bladder retraining program but is a diagnostic tool used to assess bladder function after catheter removal. This explanation misrepresents the purpose of the procedure.
B. The post-voided residual volume assessment measures how much urine remains in the bladder after the client has voided. This measurement helps determine if the bladder is emptying properly and whether there is a need for catheter re-insertion.
C. Post-voided residual volume assessment does not stimulate the bladder to empty more completely; instead, it measures the amount of urine left in the bladder. The procedure is diagnostic rather than therapeutic.
D. The post-voided residual volume assessment is a diagnostic procedure, not an exercise in conditioning. This explanation does not accurately describe the clinical purpose of the assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Implementing fall precautions is the most important intervention for a client with Parkinson’s disease experiencing decreased postural reflexes, rigidity, and gait issues. These symptoms significantly increase the risk of falls, so fall precautions are crucial for preventing injury.
B. Aspiration precautions are important for many clients, but they are less immediately relevant in this context compared to fall prevention. The symptoms listed do not directly indicate a high risk of aspiration.
C. Reorientation cues may be necessary for clients with cognitive issues but are not the primary concern for managing motor symptoms like those listed. The focus here should be on physical safety rather than cognitive orientation.
D. Bowel training is a useful intervention for managing bowel function but is not directly related to the acute risks of fall and gait disturbances associated with Parkinson’s disease.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Maternal hypotension is a significant adverse effect of epidural anesthesia that can lead to decreased uterine blood flow and fetal distress. Monitoring for hypotension is critical to ensure both maternal and fetal well-being.
B. While a vaginal hematoma is a potential complication, it is less immediately associated with the administration of epidural anesthesia compared to hypotension.
C. A continuous headache could indicate post-dural puncture but is less common and not the primary immediate concern compared to hypotension following an epidural.
D. Urinary retention can occur with epidural anesthesia, but maternal hypotension is a more urgent and significant immediate concern.
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