A 2-month-old client is brought to the well-baby clinic. The parent is completing the consent forms for routine infant immunizations. Which immunization should the practical nurse (PN) prepare to administer?
Measles Mumps Rubella (MMR).
Varicella vaccine.
Hepatitis A.
Hepatitis B.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Measles Mumps Rubella (MMR) vaccine is typically administered at 12-15 months of age, not at 2 months. It is part of the recommended immunization schedule but is not given during the 2-month visit.
B. Varicella vaccine is usually given at 12-15 months of age. It is essential for preventing chickenpox but is not included in the 2-month immunization schedule.
C. Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended starting at 12 months of age. It is not part of the immunizations administered at 2 months.
D. Hepatitis B vaccine is part of the routine immunization schedule for infants and is given at birth, 1-2 months, and 6-18 months. At the 2-month visit, it is appropriate to administer the second dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine if it was not given at 1 month.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering half of the missed dose is not generally recommended because it could lead to inconsistent drug levels and potential for breakthrough seizures. The standard practice is to follow the dosing schedule unless otherwise instructed by the healthcare provider.
B. Giving the missed dose with the next scheduled dose may lead to double dosing and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. The missed dose should be addressed as soon as possible but not in combination with the next dose.
C. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs could put the client at risk for seizures. Anticonvulsants should be administered as per the prescribed schedule to maintain therapeutic drug levels and prevent seizures.
D. Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is the correct approach, following standard guidelines for missed medications. The missed dose should be given promptly unless it is close to the time of the next dose, in which case the next dose should be given as scheduled.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Folic acid deficiency is the most significant maternal factor associated with the development of spina bifida occulta. Adequate folic acid intake before and during pregnancy is crucial for preventing neural tube defects.
B. Preeclampsia is a serious pregnancy complication but does not have a direct link to spina bifida occulta compared to the impact of folic acid deficiency.
C. A short interval between pregnancies is associated with other risks but is not a known direct cause of spina bifida occulta.
D. Tobacco use has various adverse effects on pregnancy and fetal development but is not as directly linked to the risk of spina bifida occulta as folic acid deficiency.
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