As a nurse caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit, which of the following findings should be immediately reported to the provider?

A client diagnosed with preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache

A tearful client at 32 weeks of gestation experiencing irregular, frequent contractions

A client diagnosed with preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes

A client at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

A client diagnosed with preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and unresolved headache is a serious concern. Epigastric pain could indicate severe liver involvement, and a persistent headache could be a sign of progressing neurological involvement, both of which are severe features of preeclampsia. These symptoms suggest the condition may be worsening to eclampsia, a life-threatening complication characterized by the onset of seizure activity or coma in a woman with preeclampsia. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent further complications.

Choice B rationale

A tearful client at 32 weeks of gestation experiencing irregular, frequent contractions could be experiencing preterm labor. However, emotional distress and contractions do not necessarily indicate a medical emergency. It’s important to monitor the situation, but it does not need to be immediately reported to the provider.

Choice C rationale

A client diagnosed with preeclampsia having 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes are expected findings. Proteinuria is a common sign of preeclampsia, and hyperreflexia can occur due to increased neuromuscular irritability. While these should be monitored, they do not need to be immediately reported to the provider.

Choice D rationale

A client at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline reporting fine tremors is an expected side effect of the medication. Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, can cause tremors by stimulating the nervous system. While it may be uncomfortable for the client, it is not a medical emergency.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Decreased follicle-stimulating hormone is not the major cause of the onset of menopause and the resulting atrophy of the vulvar organs. The major cause is decreased estrogen.

Choice B rationale

Increased levels of prostaglandin are not the major cause of the onset of menopause and the resulting atrophy of the vulvar organs. The major cause is decreased estrogen.

Choice C rationale

Decreased estrogen is the major cause of the onset of menopause and the resulting atrophy of the vulvar organs. During perimenopause, less estrogen may cause the tissues of the vulva and the lining of the vagina to become thinner, drier, and less elastic or flexible.

Choice D rationale

Increased luteinizing hormone is not the major cause of the onset of menopause and the resulting atrophy of the vulvar organs. The major cause is decreased estrogen.

A. Democratic. B. Authoritarian. C. Laissez-faire. D. Transformational.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

A democratic leadership style, while effective in many situations, may not be the best approach during a code blue. This style often involves group decision-making, which can be time-consuming.

Choice B rationale

An authoritarian leadership style is often most effective during a code blue. This style involves clear, direct communication and quick decision-making, which are crucial in emergency situations.

Choice C rationale

A laissez-faire leadership style involves a hands-off approach, which is not appropriate during a code blue. Quick decision-making and direct leadership are needed in these situations.

Choice D rationale

While a transformational leadership style can be effective in motivating and inspiring staff, it may not be the best approach during a code blue. This style often involves big-picture thinking and long-term goals, which are not the focus during an emergency situation.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

As a nurse caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit, which of the following findings should be immediately reported to the provider?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is educating a female client about the onset of menopause and the resulting atrophy of the vulvar organs.The nurse should recognize that the major cause for these symptoms is related to which of the following?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a client on a medical surgical unit who is now cyanotic and pulseless.Which leadership style is most effective for the nurse to use when managing a code blue for resuscitating the client?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is evaluating a patient who has been diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease.Which symptom should the nurse prioritize?

A nurse is evaluating a postpartum client for potential endometritis.Which of the following symptoms should the nurse identify as a need for further assessment?

When preparing a presentation for a senior center about age-related musculoskeletal changes, which of the following changes should be included?

A nurse is providing care for a patient who is in active labor and recognizes late decelerations on the fetal monitor.The healthcare provider has been informed.What is the nurse’s priority action?

A pregnant couple at 14 weeks gestation has just been told that they both are carriers of an autosomal-recessive disorder.The nurse who is providing genetic counseling should take which of the following actions?

A nurse is educating a client who has just tested positive for pregnancy.The nurse is discussing common discomforts during the first trimester and warning signs of potential complications.Which of the following symptoms should the nurse advise the client to report to the clinic?

A nurse in the emergency department is implementing a plan of care for an older adult patient who is experiencing delirium tremens.What is the first action the nurse should take?