As a nurse caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit, which of the following findings should be immediately reported to the provider?
A client diagnosed with preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and unresolved headache
A tearful client at 32 weeks of gestation experiencing irregular, frequent contractions
A client diagnosed with preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes
A client at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
A client diagnosed with preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and unresolved headache is a serious concern. Epigastric pain could indicate severe liver involvement, and a persistent headache could be a sign of progressing neurological involvement, both of which are severe features of preeclampsia. These symptoms suggest the condition may be worsening to eclampsia, a life-threatening complication characterized by the onset of seizure activity or coma in a woman with preeclampsia. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent further complications.
Choice B rationale
A tearful client at 32 weeks of gestation experiencing irregular, frequent contractions could be experiencing preterm labor. However, emotional distress and contractions do not necessarily indicate a medical emergency. It’s important to monitor the situation, but it does not need to be immediately reported to the provider.
Choice C rationale
A client diagnosed with preeclampsia having 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes are expected findings. Proteinuria is a common sign of preeclampsia, and hyperreflexia can occur due to increased neuromuscular irritability. While these should be monitored, they do not need to be immediately reported to the provider.
Choice D rationale
A client at 28 weeks of gestation receiving terbutaline reporting fine tremors is an expected side effect of the medication. Terbutaline, a beta-adrenergic agonist, can cause tremors by stimulating the nervous system. While it may be uncomfortable for the client, it is not a medical emergency.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The statement about shock waves refers to a different procedure called extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, which is used to break up kidney stones and gallstones. It is not related to an oral cholangiogram.
Choice B rationale
An oral cholangiogram does not involve inserting a camera down the throat. This statement seems to refer to an endoscopic procedure, which is different from an oral cholangiogram.
Choice C rationale
This statement is correct. An oral cholangiogram is an X-ray examination of the gallbladder and bile ducts. The patient takes an oral medication that makes these structures more visible on the X-ray.
Choice D rationale
This statement is incorrect. An oral cholangiogram does not involve putting medication into the gallbladder to dissolve stones. This seems to refer to a different treatment approach.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea medication used in Type 2 Diabetes to sensitize pancreatic beta cells and stimulate insulin release. It helps control blood sugar levels by prompting your pancreas to produce insulin. This medication is effective only in people whose bodies produce insulin naturally.
Choice B rationale
Glipizide does not replace insulin that is not being produced by your pancreas. Instead, it stimulates the pancreas to release insulin.
Choice C rationale
Glipizide does not absorb excess carbohydrates in your system. Its primary action is to stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas.
Choice D rationale
Glipizide does not prevent your liver from destroying your insulin. Its main function is to stimulate the pancreas to release insulin, which helps control blood sugar levels.
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