An elderly female patient is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. Which statement best describes the relationship between osteoporosis and the occurrence of pathological fractures related to aging?
There is an imbalance between formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone.
An Invasion of a pathogen leads to infection: causing destruction and weakening of the bone.
A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells.
Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss.
The Correct Answer is A
A. There is an imbalance between the formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone: Osteoporosis occurs when bone resorption outpaces bone formation, leading to decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures.
B. An invasion of a pathogen leads to infection, causing destruction and weakening of the bone: This describes osteomyelitis, a bone infection, not osteoporosis.
C. A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells: This describes avascular necrosis, not osteoporosis.
D. Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss: In fact, decreased estrogen levels after menopause contribute to bone loss and osteoporosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Steroid injections will be administered daily: This is incorrect; steroid therapy may exacerbate Cushing's disease. The condition is often due to excessive production of cortisol, not a deficiency.
B. Weight gain and edema are present: Hyperaldosteronism, often associated with Cushing's syndrome, leads to sodium and water retention, resulting in weight gain and edema.
C. Painful leg cramps are common from hyperkalemia: Hyperaldosteronism typically causes hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia, leading to muscle cramps, not leg pain from hyperkalemia.
D. Decreased amount of body hair is frequently seen: Cushing's disease often leads to hirsutism (increased body hair), not a decrease.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Vertigo and bilateral loss of the pupillary light reflex: Vertigo can occur with cerebellar involvement, but loss of the pupillary light reflex is more associated with brainstem damage.
B. Nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig's sign: These are signs of meningitis, not a cerebellar stroke.
C. Report of falling down, nausea, and vomiting: These symptoms can occur with cerebellar strokes, but they are nonspecific and can be seen in other conditions as well.
D. Difficulty speaking and loss of coordination: The cerebellum is responsible for coordination, and a cerebellar stroke can lead to ataxia (loss of coordination) and dysarthria (difficulty speaking).
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