An elderly female patient is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. Which statement best describes the relationship between osteoporosis and the occurrence of pathological fractures related to aging?
There is an imbalance between formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone.
An Invasion of a pathogen leads to infection: causing destruction and weakening of the bone.
A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells.
Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss.
The Correct Answer is A
A. There is an imbalance between the formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone: Osteoporosis occurs when bone resorption outpaces bone formation, leading to decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures.
B. An invasion of a pathogen leads to infection, causing destruction and weakening of the bone: This describes osteomyelitis, a bone infection, not osteoporosis.
C. A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells: This describes avascular necrosis, not osteoporosis.
D. Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss: In fact, decreased estrogen levels after menopause contribute to bone loss and osteoporosis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Low T4, High TSH: This pattern is seen in primary hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive.
B. Low T4, high calcitonin: This choice is unrelated to the typical lab findings in Graves' disease. Calcitonin levels are not commonly assessed in thyroid disorders like Graves' disease.
C. High PSA and estrogen levels: PSA (Prostate-Specific Antigen) and estrogen levels are unrelated to Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune hyperthyroid condition.
D. High T4, low TSH: Graves' disease is characterized by hyperthyroidism, where T4 (thyroxine) levels are elevated, and TSH (Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone) levels are suppressed due to the negative feedback mechanism.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer some insulin: Insulin is not appropriate unless there is evidence of hyperglycemia, which is not suggested by the symptoms described.
B. Prepare the patient to receive a blood transfusion: The symptoms described are not indicative of a need for a blood transfusion but rather suggest adrenal insufficiency.
C. Administer IV glucose: Addisonian crisis can be triggered by stress and dehydration, leading to low blood sugar and symptoms such as weakness and confusion. Administering IV glucose can help manage hypoglycemia and provide immediate support.
D. Collect some urine and assess for glucosuria: The symptoms are more acute and related to adrenal insufficiency rather than glucosuria.
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