An elderly female patient is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. Which statement best describes the relationship between osteoporosis and the occurrence of pathological fractures related to aging?
There is an imbalance between formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone.
An Invasion of a pathogen leads to infection: causing destruction and weakening of the bone.
A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells.
Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss.
The Correct Answer is A
A. There is an imbalance between the formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone: Osteoporosis occurs when bone resorption outpaces bone formation, leading to decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures.
B. An invasion of a pathogen leads to infection, causing destruction and weakening of the bone: This describes osteomyelitis, a bone infection, not osteoporosis.
C. A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells: This describes avascular necrosis, not osteoporosis.
D. Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss: In fact, decreased estrogen levels after menopause contribute to bone loss and osteoporosis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Several episodes of black and tarry stools: This indicates melena, which is typically associated with upper gastrointestinal bleeding, not specifically Crohn's disease.
B. Several episodes of hematochezia per day: Hematochezia (fresh blood in stools) can occur in Crohn's disease due to inflammation and ulceration in the intestines.
C. Post-alcohol ingestion epigastric pain: This is more commonly associated with gastritis or peptic ulcer disease, not Crohn's disease.
D. An oral temperature of 102°F: While fever can occur in Crohn's disease during acute flare-ups, it is not a specific or definitive symptom of the condition. The primary symptoms are gastrointestinal in nature, such as abdominal pain and altered bowel habits.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Appendicitis: Appendicitis typically presents with right lower quadrant pain, not LLQ pain.
B. Barrett's esophagus: Barrett's esophagus is a condition associated with chronic GERD and does not cause leukocytosis, fever, or LLQ pain.
C. Diverticulitis: Diverticulitis often presents with LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis due to inflammation or infection of the diverticula in the colon.
D. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS may cause abdominal pain, but it does not cause fever or leukocytosis, and the pain is typically relieved with defecation and not localized to the LLQ.
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