An elderly female patient is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. Which statement best describes the relationship between osteoporosis and the occurrence of pathological fractures related to aging?
There is an imbalance between formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone.
An Invasion of a pathogen leads to infection: causing destruction and weakening of the bone.
A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells.
Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss.
The Correct Answer is A
A. There is an imbalance between the formation of new bone and the resorption of existing bone: Osteoporosis occurs when bone resorption outpaces bone formation, leading to decreased bone density and increased susceptibility to fractures.
B. An invasion of a pathogen leads to infection, causing destruction and weakening of the bone: This describes osteomyelitis, a bone infection, not osteoporosis.
C. A decrease in blood supply to the bone results in bony necrosis or the death of bone cells: This describes avascular necrosis, not osteoporosis.
D. Increased amounts of estrogen in postmenopausal women contribute to bone loss: In fact, decreased estrogen levels after menopause contribute to bone loss and osteoporosis.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Vertigo and bilateral loss of the pupillary light reflex: Vertigo can occur with cerebellar involvement, but loss of the pupillary light reflex is more associated with brainstem damage.
B. Nuchal rigidity and positive Kernig's sign: These are signs of meningitis, not a cerebellar stroke.
C. Report of falling down, nausea, and vomiting: These symptoms can occur with cerebellar strokes, but they are nonspecific and can be seen in other conditions as well.
D. Difficulty speaking and loss of coordination: The cerebellum is responsible for coordination, and a cerebellar stroke can lead to ataxia (loss of coordination) and dysarthria (difficulty speaking).
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. His body does not produce any insulin so he must receive insulin injections: Type I diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, resulting in little to no insulin production. Therefore, insulin must be administered via injection to replace the insulin the body cannot produce.
B. The pills are not as effective as the insulin injections: While this might be partially true for Type I diabetes, it is not the complete answer. Oral medications are generally not effective in Type I diabetes because they stimulate the pancreas to produce insulin, which is not possible in these patients.
C. He will only be on insulin injections for a short while, then he can take a pill: This is incorrect. Type I diabetes requires lifelong insulin therapy.
D. He can stop the insulin injections once his body begins to make insulin again: This is incorrect as Type I diabetes is a permanent condition where the body cannot produce insulin.
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