A patient has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which response best explains the etiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

The disease is prevalent in certain geographical locations.

There is a well-defined genetic cause.

Inflammatory processes are responsible for the signs and symptoms.

Ischemic lesions in the brain are responsible for the signs and symptoms.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The disease is prevalent in certain geographical locations: This statement is true but does not explain the etiology of MS. Geographic prevalence does not address the underlying cause.

B. There is a well-defined genetic cause: While genetics may play a role in MS, there is no single well-defined genetic cause for the disease.

C. Inflammatory processes are responsible for the signs and symptoms: MS is an autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation and demyelination of the central nervous system, leading to the signs and symptoms of the disease.

D. Ischemic lesions in the brain are responsible for the signs and symptoms: MS is primarily caused by demyelination rather than ischemic lesions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Positive Brudzinski's sign: A positive Brudzinski's sign, which involves involuntary flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed, is a common finding in meningitis (both viral and bacterial).

B. Dysarthria and double vision: These symptoms are not typical of viral meningitis; they are more often associated with neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis.

C. Petechiae and purpura: These are more commonly associated with bacterial meningitis, particularly meningococcal meningitis, rather than viral meningitis.

D. Positive Babinski's reflex: A positive Babinski’s reflex indicates an upper motor neuron lesion and is not specific to meningitis.

A. Administer some insulin B. Prepare the patient to receive a blood transfusion C. Administer IV glucose D. Collect some urine and assess for glucosuria

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Administer some insulin: Insulin is not appropriate unless there is evidence of hyperglycemia, which is not suggested by the symptoms described.

B. Prepare the patient to receive a blood transfusion: The symptoms described are not indicative of a need for a blood transfusion but rather suggest adrenal insufficiency.

C. Administer IV glucose: Addisonian crisis can be triggered by stress and dehydration, leading to low blood sugar and symptoms such as weakness and confusion. Administering IV glucose can help manage hypoglycemia and provide immediate support.

D. Collect some urine and assess for glucosuria: The symptoms are more acute and related to adrenal insufficiency rather than glucosuria.

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A patient has recently been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Which response best explains the etiology of multiple sclerosis (MS)?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which assessment finding is expected for a patient just diagnosed with viral (aseptic) meningitis?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient, diagnosed with Addison's disease, is admitted to the emergency department (ED) after spending the day at the lake. The patient is diaphoretic, weak and forgetful. Which intervention would be supportive for these S&S (signs and symptoms)?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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