An adult client in the intensive care unit (ICU) with a central venous catheter has developed signs and symptoms that are suggestive of a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI). What is most likely the cause of the infection?

The client was treated for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) during a previous admission.

The client had blood cultures drawn from the central line.

The client's central line dressing was changed using clean technique.

The client has received antibiotics and intravenous fluids through the same line.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. The treatment for vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE) in a previous admission is not directly related to the development of CLABSI in the current situation. The infection is more likely caused by improper handling or maintenance of the central line.
B. Drawing blood cultures from the central line, while not ideal, is not the most likely cause of CLABSI. Proper technique can mitigate the risk of introducing infection during this procedure.
C. Changing the central line dressing using clean technique instead of sterile technique increases the risk of introducing pathogens to the central line site, leading to a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI).
D. Receiving antibiotics and intravenous fluids through the same line does not typically cause CLABSI if the line is properly maintained and sterile techniques are observed during administration.

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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Explanation

Sodium level: The client's sodium level is significantly elevated (157 mEq/L), indicating hyponatremia. This is a critical finding that needs to be addressed promptly to prevent serious complications such as seizures and coma.

Heart rate: While the heart rate is slightly elevated, it is not as urgent a concern as the sodium level. Once the sodium level is stabilized, the nurse can address the heart rate if it remains elevated.

A. Initiate droplet precautions. B. Prepare to administer antiviral therapy. C. Assess for hemorrhage. D. Assess the respiratory system.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Droplet precautions are not appropriate for anthrax exposure. Precautions would be based on the specific form of anthrax (cutaneous, inhalation, or gastrointestinal).
B. Anthrax is treated with antibiotics, not antiviral therapy. Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline is typically used for prophylaxis and treatment.
C. While assessing for hemorrhage might be relevant in cases of severe anthrax, it is more critical initially to focus on respiratory assessment, particularly for inhalation anthrax.
D. Assessing the respiratory system is crucial for clients exposed to anthrax, particularly inhalation anthrax, as it can cause severe respiratory symptoms and complications. Prompt assessment is essential for early detection and treatment of respiratory distress.

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An adult client in the intensive care unit (ICU) with a central venous catheter has developed signs and symptoms that are suggestive of a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI). What is most likely the cause of the infection?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a 58-year-old client admitted with reports of increased urination and thirst. Exhibits Complete the following sentence by using the lists of options. The nurse should first address the client's dropdown followed by the client's dropdown

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has been exposed to anthrax. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to use while caring for this client?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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