An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
Decreased urine output
Increased cardiac output
Volume restoration
Reduced anxiety
The Correct Answer is B
A. Decreased urine output is not the primary intended effect of an adrenergic agonist in the
treatment of shock. While adrenergic agonists may increase blood pressure, leading to a decrease in urine output due to vasoconstriction, the primary goal of administering these drugs in shock is to improve tissue perfusion and cardiac output.
B. Increased cardiac output is the primary intended effect of adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. These medications stimulate adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, contractility, and stroke volume, ultimately improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
C. Volume restoration may be a secondary effect of administering fluids along with adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock, but it is not the primary intended effect of the medication
itself.
D. Reduced anxiety is not a primary goal of administering adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. While these medications may have anxiolytic effects in certain situations, the primary goal is to improve cardiovascular function and tissue perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Signs of bone marrow depression are not typically associated with antiepileptic drugs. This adverse effect is more commonly seen with medications such as chemotherapy agents.
B. Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors is a well-documented concern with antiepileptic drugs, particularly when used for psychiatric indications or in certain patient populations. The FDA has issued warnings regarding this risk, and healthcare providers should monitor patients for changes in mood, behavior, and suicidal ideation.
C. While some antiepileptic drugs may have cardiovascular effects, such as prolongation of the QT interval, the FDA warning specifically highlights the risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors rather than cardiovascular events like strokes.
D. Indications of drug addiction and dependency are not typically associated with antiepileptic drugs. These medications are not central nervous system depressants and do not produce the euphoria or withdrawal symptoms characteristic of addictive substances.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Getting up slowly from a sitting or lying position is an important aspect of patient education for individuals taking tamsulosin, as this medication can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to dizziness or fainting upon standing up quickly.
B. Tamsulosin is often taken once daily, approximately 30 minutes after the same meal each day, typically breakfast or the first meal of the day. Taking it with breakfast is not a requirement for
its efficacy.
C. There is no need to restrict fluids while on tamsulosin therapy. In fact, adequate hydration is generally encouraged.
D. Tamsulosin is not typically associated with causing hypertension. Instead, it is more commonly associated with hypotension, especially orthostatic hypotension.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.