An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?
Decreased urine output
Increased cardiac output
Volume restoration
Reduced anxiety
The Correct Answer is B
A. Decreased urine output is not the primary intended effect of an adrenergic agonist in the
treatment of shock. While adrenergic agonists may increase blood pressure, leading to a decrease in urine output due to vasoconstriction, the primary goal of administering these drugs in shock is to improve tissue perfusion and cardiac output.
B. Increased cardiac output is the primary intended effect of adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. These medications stimulate adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, contractility, and stroke volume, ultimately improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
C. Volume restoration may be a secondary effect of administering fluids along with adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock, but it is not the primary intended effect of the medication
itself.
D. Reduced anxiety is not a primary goal of administering adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. While these medications may have anxiolytic effects in certain situations, the primary goal is to improve cardiovascular function and tissue perfusion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The drug level is at a toxic level, and the dosage needs to be reduced. Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels above 20 mcg/mL are considered to be in the toxic range.
Symptoms of phenytoin toxicity can include nystagmus, ataxia, slurred speech, and confusion. Therefore, if a patient's phenytoin level is 23 mcg/mL, the nurse should be concerned about potential toxicity and consult with the healthcare provider to adjust the dosage.
B. The patient's seizures should be under control if she is also taking a second antiepileptic drug.
While combination therapy with multiple antiepileptic drugs can help control seizures, a phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is still concerning for toxicity and requires intervention.
C. The patient is at risk for seizures because the drug level is not at a therapeutic level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is actually above the therapeutic range and is more indicative of toxicity rather than subtherapeutic levels.
D. The patient's seizures should be under control because this is a therapeutic drug level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is not within the therapeutic range but rather in the toxic range, so the patient may experience symptoms of toxicity rather than having adequate seizure control.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Opioids: Opioids typically cause sedation, respiratory depression, and decreased reflexes, which are opposite to the symptoms described.
B. Depressants: Depressants, such as benzodiazepines or alcohol, would likely cause sedation, decreased reflexes, and confusion, but not the symptoms of restlessness, talkativeness, and hyperactive reflexes.
C. Alcohol: While alcohol intoxication can cause confusion, talkativeness, and tachycardia, it is less likely to result in hyperactive reflexes and restlessness as described.
D. Stimulants: Stimulants, such as amphetamines or cocaine, can cause restlessness, hyperactivity, talkativeness, confusion, panic, and tachycardia, matching the symptoms described.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today