An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?

Decreased urine output

Increased cardiac output

Volume restoration

Reduced anxiety

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Decreased urine output is not the primary intended effect of an adrenergic agonist in the

treatment of shock. While adrenergic agonists may increase blood pressure, leading to a decrease in urine output due to vasoconstriction, the primary goal of administering these drugs in shock is to improve tissue perfusion and cardiac output.
B. Increased cardiac output is the primary intended effect of adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. These medications stimulate adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, contractility, and stroke volume, ultimately improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
C. Volume restoration may be a secondary effect of administering fluids along with adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock, but it is not the primary intended effect of the medication
itself.

D. Reduced anxiety is not a primary goal of administering adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. While these medications may have anxiolytic effects in certain situations, the primary goal is to improve cardiovascular function and tissue perfusion.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia: This instruction is not directly

related to minimizing anticholinergic effects; it's more about managing the timing of medication administration.
B. Use cooling measures to decrease fever: Anticholinergic effects do not typically cause fever, so this instruction is not relevant.
C. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth: Anticholinergic medications can cause dry mouth (xerostomia), and chewing gum can stimulate saliva production, alleviating this side effect.
D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea: Anticholinergic effects can include nausea, but taking an antacid is not a specific strategy for managing this side effect.

A. Oral contraceptives B. Antihistamines C. Warfarin D. Opioids E. Diuretics

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Oral contraceptives: Phenobarbital can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of contraceptive failure and unintended pregnancy.
B. Antihistamines: While phenobarbital can induce hepatic enzymes, leading to increased

metabolism of some antihistamines, this interaction is less clinically significant compared to the interactions with oral contraceptives, opioids, and diuretics.
C. Warfarin: Phenobarbital can induce the metabolism of warfarin, potentially reducing its anticoagulant effects and necessitating closer monitoring of international normalized ratio (INR) levels.
D. Opioids: Phenobarbital can increase the metabolism of opioids, leading to reduced analgesic effects and potentially causing inadequate pain control.

E. Diuretics: Phenobarbital can accelerate the metabolism of diuretics, potentially reducing their efficacy and necessitating adjustments in dosage or monitoring of electrolyte levels.

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An adrenergic agonist is ordered for a patient in shock. The nurse will note that this drug has had its primary intended effect if which expected outcome occurs?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is teaching a patient who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the patient to minimize anticholinergic effects?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The barbiturate phenobarbital is prescribed for a patient with epilepsy. While assessing the patient's current medications, the nurse recognizes that interactions may occur with which drugs? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

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