An adolescent tells the school nurse, "My friend threatened to take an overdose of pills." The nurse talks to the friend who verbalized the suicide threat. What is the most critical question for the nurse to ask?
"Why do you want to kill yourself?"
"Do you have access to medications?"
"Have you been taking drugs and alcohol?"
"Did something happen with your parents?"
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect. While understanding the reasons behind the suicidal thoughts is important, in this immediate situation, assessing access to means (medications) is crucial.
B) Correct. This question assesses the immediate risk by determining if the friend has access to the means (medications) to carry out the overdose.
C) Incorrect. While substance use is a risk factor, it may not directly address the immediate threat of overdose with pills.
D) Incorrect. While family issues can contribute to emotional distress, the most pressing concern is the immediate risk of overdose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "As depression lifts, physical energy becomes available to carry out suicide." This statement highlights a critical consideration in the care of severely depressed clients. When a client's depression starts to improve due to antidepressant therapy, there may be a period where they have increased energy but have not yet gained full relief from their depressive thoughts. This can potentially increase the risk of carrying out suicidal thoughts or plans.
B. "Suicide may be precipitated by a variety of internal and external events." While this statement is true, it does not specifically address the importance of monitoring a client during antidepressant therapy.
C. "Suicidal clients have difficulty using social supports." This statement acknowledges a potential challenge for clients who are experiencing suicidal thoughts, but it does not directly relate to the need for close monitoring during antidepressant therapy.
D. "Suicide is an impulsive act that has no warning." This statement is not entirely accurate. While some suicides can be impulsive, many individuals give warning signs or exhibit changes in behavior before attempting suicide.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term neuroleptic (antipsychotic) treatment. It is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements, particularly of the face and tongue. This condition is more commonly seen in clients who have been on neuroleptics for extended periods.
B) Incorrect. Discontinuing neuroleptic treatment may lead to withdrawal symptoms or symptom recurrence, but it does not directly increase the risk of developing tardive dyskinesia.
C) Incorrect. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a different side effect associated with neuroleptic medications, characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysregulation, altered mental status, and generalized muscle rigidity.
D) Incorrect. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a different class of medications and are not associated with the development of tardive dyskinesia.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.