After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-age man is evaluated for gastroplasty.

He has experienced difficulty with managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery.

Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Observe for signs of depression.

Monitor for urinary incontinence.

Provide a wide variety of meal choices.

Apply sequential compression stockings.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

Observing for signs of depression is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care. This patient has a history of struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension, and is now approved for gastroplasty. Weight management surgery can have significant psychological implications, and patients may experience depression or other emotional issues. Identifying signs of depression and providing appropriate support and resources is crucial for the client's overall well-being and successful outcomes.

Choice B rationale:

Monitoring for urinary incontinence is not the top priority in this case. While it's important to assess and address urinary incontinence when necessary, it is not the most critical concern for a client undergoing gastroplasty. Depression and post-surgical complications related to weight management surgery take precedence.

Choice C rationale:

Providing a wide variety of meal choices is not the most important intervention at this stage. After gastroplasty, dietary choices are typically restricted, and the focus is on a controlled and healthy diet. The priority is addressing the psychological and emotional aspects of the client's care, as well as monitoring for surgical complications.

Choice D rationale:

Applying sequential compression stockings is not the most crucial intervention in this situation. While prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is important, it is not the top priority compared to addressing potential depression and emotional well-being in a client who has struggled with weight management for years.

Nursing Test Bank

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.

Choice B rationale:

Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.

Choice C rationale:

Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.

Choice D rationale:

Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.

A. Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy. B. Autonomic neuropathy. C. Impaired neuron function. D. Muscle fiber degeneration.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy is not a typical underlying disease pathology associated with a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.

Choice B rationale:

Autonomic neuropathy may manifest with a variety of symptoms, including autonomic dysregulation, but it is not a common underlying pathology leading to a waddling gait and frequent falls in a child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.

Choice C rationale:

Impaired neuron function can result in various neurological symptoms, but it does not specifically explain the waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.

Choice D rationale:

Muscle fiber degeneration is the most appropriate explanation for the symptoms of a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. These symptoms are indicative of a neuromuscular disorder known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which involves progressive muscle weakness and degeneration. DMD is characterized by the loss of muscle fibers and is a common cause of a waddling gait and falls in affected children. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer based on the understanding of the underlying disease pathology.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client arrives at the emergency department with chest pain after taking sildenafil. Based on the client's history, which medication should the nurse withhold?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A 5-year-old child with a history of a waddling gait and frequent falls is brought into the hospital for diagnostic testing. When explaining the diagnostic testing to the parents, the nurse should provide information based on which understanding of the underlying disease pathology?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. Which is the best response by the nurse?

After an increase in the number of suicides in a community, the nurse is developing a class for adolescents about mental health. Which type of activity should the nurse include in the teaching?

The nurse is providing education to a client who receives a prescription for zolpidem. Which information about the medication should the nurse include?

A nurse is caring for a client who has meningitis caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. The provider orders penicillin G IV for this client. Before administering the medication, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

When performing a focused gastrointestinal system assessment, the practical nurse (PN) asks a male client when his last bowel movement occurred. The client answers, "Three days ago." Which action should the PN implement first?

The nurse is planning discharge instructions for a client with type 2 diabetes who will be starting exenatide. Which information should be included in the discharge instructions?

After a client receives a dose of albuterol, the nurse evaluates the medication's effects by auscultating the client's lung fields. Which action should the nurse take next based on the assessment?