An adolescent who is brought to the emergency department (ED) with a fever and persistent lower right quadrant abdominal pain is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating.
The nurse anticipates the client developing which acid-base imbalance?
Metabolic alkalosis.
Respiratory alkalosis.
Metabolic acidosis.
Respiratory acidosis.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B.
Choice A rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is caused by a loss of acid or a gain of base. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Choice B rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation, which leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can occur in response to anxiety, pain, or other stressors.
Choice C rationale: Metabolic acidosis is caused by a buildup of acid in the blood or a loss of bicarbonate. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Choice D rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation, which leads to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","F","I"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Starting an insulin drip at 0.1 u/kg/hr is a common treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The goal is to lower blood glucose levels while avoiding a rapid decrease that could lead to cerebral edema. Insulin infusions allow for precise control of the rate and can be adjusted as needed based on the patient’s response.
Choice B rationale:
Giving a long-acting insulin dose is not typically done during the acute treatment of DKA. The patient has already taken a dose of insulin glargine at home. Additional doses of long-acting insulin could potentially lead to hypoglycemia.
Choice C rationale:
Providing an oral medication that enhances insulin production would not be beneficial in this case. The patient has type 1 diabetes, which means her body does not produce insulin. Therefore, medications that stimulate insulin production would not be effective.
Choice D rationale:
Changing the intravenous fluid to 5% dextrose and 0.45% sodium chloride with 20 mEq potassium can help prevent hypoglycemia and hypokalemia, which are potential complications of DKA treatment. As blood glucose levels decrease with treatment, dextrose can help maintain appropriate glucose levels. Potassium is often depleted in DKA and needs to be replaced.
Choice E rationale:
Having the client drink as much as they can tolerate would not be appropriate at this time. The patient is currently experiencing nausea and vomiting, which could be exacerbated by oral fluid intake. Additionally, she is NPO (nothing by mouth), likely due to her unstable condition.
Choice F rationale:
Giving 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride IV can help correct dehydration, which is common in DKA due to excessive urination caused by high blood glucose levels.
Choice G rationale:
Promoting removal of electrolytes with a diuretic would not be beneficial in this case. The patient is likely already dehydrated and may have electrolyte imbalances due to DKA. Using a diuretic could exacerbate these issues.
Choice H rationale:
Giving a multivitamin is not typically part of the acute treatment for DKA. While overall nutritional status is important in managing diabetes, it would not address the immediate concerns of hyperglycemia and acidosis in DKA.
Choice I rationale:
Replacing potassium as needed is crucial in the treatment of DKA. Potassium levels can drop rapidly during treatment as insulin allows potassium to move back into cells. Low potassium (hypokalemia) can cause dangerous heart rhythms and muscle weakness.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.
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