A 5-year-old child with a history of a waddling gait and frequent falls is brought into the hospital for diagnostic testing.
When explaining the diagnostic testing to the parents, the nurse should provide information based on which understanding of the underlying disease pathology?
Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy.
Autonomic neuropathy.
Impaired neuron function.
Muscle fiber degeneration.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy is not a typical underlying disease pathology associated with a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice B rationale:
Autonomic neuropathy may manifest with a variety of symptoms, including autonomic dysregulation, but it is not a common underlying pathology leading to a waddling gait and frequent falls in a child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice C rationale:
Impaired neuron function can result in various neurological symptoms, but it does not specifically explain the waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice D rationale:
Muscle fiber degeneration is the most appropriate explanation for the symptoms of a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. These symptoms are indicative of a neuromuscular disorder known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which involves progressive muscle weakness and degeneration. DMD is characterized by the loss of muscle fibers and is a common cause of a waddling gait and falls in affected children. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer based on the understanding of the underlying disease pathology.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Beginning continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction is important in the assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. However, in this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms suggestive of a possible stroke or cerebrovascular event, and time is crucial. The nurse should prioritize actions that can lead to prompt diagnosis and treatment.
Choice B rationale:
Starting two large bore intravenous (IV) catheters and reviewing inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is the most urgent action. The client's symptoms, including sudden right-sided numbness, weakness, and facial droop, are indicative of a possible ischemic stroke. IV fibrinolytic therapy is time-sensitive and has a limited window of effectiveness. Establishing IV access and determining eligibility for this therapy should be the nurse's top priority to potentially improve the client's outcome.
Choice C rationale:
Administering aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping is an important intervention in the treatment of ischemic stroke. However, it should not be the first action in this scenario. The priority is to assess for eligibility for IV fibrinolytic therapy, as this intervention has a more immediate impact on reversing the stroke's effects.
Choice D rationale:
Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment is a reasonable nursing intervention to prevent complications such as aspiration and promote optimal cerebral blood flow. However, it is not the most urgent action in this case. The priority should be on assessing and potentially treating the stroke with IV fibrinolytic therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Aspirin is not typically contraindicated in a client who has taken sildenafil unless there are specific contraindications or allergies. Aspirin is often used in the management of acute chest pain to help prevent blood clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Heparin is not contraindicated solely because the client has taken sildenafil. Heparin is an anticoagulant commonly used in various clinical settings, including the management of certain cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale:
Morphine is not necessarily contraindicated based solely on the client's use of sildenafil. Morphine can be used to relieve chest pain in some cases of acute coronary syndrome. However, its use should be carefully evaluated based on the client's overall clinical presentation.
Choice D rationale:
Nitroglycerin should be withheld in this scenario. Sildenafil is a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary arterial hypertension. It can potentiate the vasodilatory effects of nitroglycerin, leading to a severe drop in blood pressure. Concomitant use of nitroglycerin and sildenafil is contraindicated due to the risk of significant hypotension, which can be life-threatening.
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