A male preoperative client who has already signed the informed consent for a surgical procedure confides to the practical nurse (PN) that he is really frightened and unsure about undergoing the surgery. Which priority action should the PN take?
Document that the client has expressed concerns about the surgery
Encourage the client to continue with the scheduled surger
Remind the client that the consent has already been obtained
Notify the charge nurse of the client's concerns about surgery
The Correct Answer is D
d) Notify the charge nurse of the client's concerns about surgery.
Explanation:
When a client expresses fear and uncertainty about undergoing surgery, it is important for the practical nurse (PN) to communicate this information to the charge nurse or the healthcare provider. By notifying the appropriate person, the PN ensures that the client's concerns are addressed and appropriate interventions can be implemented.
Options a) and c) are not the priority actions because documenting the client's concerns or reminding them about the signed consent does not address their emotional needs or provide support.
Option b) may not be the most appropriate response, as simply encouraging the client to continue with the scheduled surgery without addressing their fears and uncertainties may not be sufficient to alleviate their anxiety.
Therefore, the best course of action is to notify the charge nurse or healthcare provider so that they can assess the client's concerns, provide reassurance, and address any questions or fears the client may have prior to the surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Limiting fluid intake to prevent incontinence is not the highest priority intervention for this client because it can cause dehydration, urinary tract infections, or kidney stones, which can worsen the client's condition and quality of lifE. The client should be encouraged to drink adequate fluids and empty their bladder regularly.
Choice B reason: Providing regular perineal care to prevent skin breakdown is the highest priority intervention for this client because it can prevent infection, irritation, and ulceration of the skin around the genital and anal areas, which can cause pain, discomfort, and complications. The client should be kept clean and dry, and use barrier creams or pads as needeD.
Choice C reason: Administering hypotonic IV fluids is not an intervention for this client because it can cause fluid overload, hyponatremia, or cerebral edema, which can endanger the client's health and safety. The client does not need IV fluids unless they are dehydrated or have other indications.
Choice D reason: Teaching Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor is not an intervention for this client because it can be ineffective or harmful for clients with reflex incontinence, which is caused by loss of voluntary control over bladder contractions due to spinal cord injury. The client may benefit from other interventions such as bladder training, medication, or surgery.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Gradual onset of several hours is not a manifestation of a hemorrhagic strokE. Hemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel bursts in or near the brain, causing rapid bleeding and increased intracranial pressurE.
Choice B reason: Maintains consciousness is not a manifestation of a hemorrhagic strokE. Hemorrhagic strokes often cause loss of consciousness due to compression or damage of brain tissuE.
Choice C reason: Sudden severe headache is a manifestation of a hemorrhagic strokE. Hemorrhagic strokes can cause intense pain in the head due to bleeding and pressure on nerve endings.
Choice D reason: History of neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hour is not a manifestation of a hemorrhagic strokE. Neurologic deficits lasting less than 1 hour are more indicative of a transient ischemic attack (TIA), which is caused by temporary blockage or narrowing of blood vessels in or leading to the brain.
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