The nurse interviews a client admitted for an outpatient procedure and enters a long list of home medications into the medical record.

The nurse observes several medications that are prescribed for the same indications.

Which instruction is best for the nurse to communicate to the client regarding the multiple prescriptions?

The correct answer is Choice B: Advise the client that lifestyle changes often take several weeks to be effective.

Choice B rationale: Exercise is known to improve sleep quality and reduce the time it takes to fall asleep; however, these benefits may not be immediate. Lifestyle modifications, such as incorporating regular physical activity, typically require several weeks before noticeable improvements in sleep patterns and overall health are observed. By informing the client about this expected timeframe, the nurse promotes realistic expectations and encourages adherence to the exercise program.

Choice A rationale: Encouraging daily exercise to eliminate bedtime wakefulness may be counterproductive, as overexertion can lead to increased arousal and impaired sleep quality. Additionally, daily exercise might be too rigorous or impractical for some individuals, potentially leading to burnout or injury. It is essential to tailor exercise recommendations to the client's fitness level, preferences, and goals.

Choice C rationale: While obtaining information about the client's exercise schedule is helpful in assessing their adherence and progress, it does not directly address the issue of sleep onset difficulties. The nurse should focus on providing education and guidance on the expected timeline for observing sleep improvements with exercise.

Choice D rationale: Weight loss is a potential outcome of increased physical activity but is not directly correlated with improvements in sleep onset latency. Focusing solely on weight loss may overlook other essential aspects of sleep hygiene and healthy lifestyle changes. The nurse should emphasize the broader benefits of exercise and provide a comprehensive approach to addressing the client's concerns.

Choice A rationale:

Beginning continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction is important in the assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. However, in this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms suggestive of a possible stroke or cerebrovascular event, and time is crucial. The nurse should prioritize actions that can lead to prompt diagnosis and treatment.

Choice B rationale:

Starting two large bore intravenous (IV) catheters and reviewing inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy is the most urgent action. The client's symptoms, including sudden right-sided numbness, weakness, and facial droop, are indicative of a possible ischemic stroke. IV fibrinolytic therapy is time-sensitive and has a limited window of effectiveness. Establishing IV access and determining eligibility for this therapy should be the nurse's top priority to potentially improve the client's outcome.

Choice C rationale:

Administering aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping is an important intervention in the treatment of ischemic stroke. However, it should not be the first action in this scenario. The priority is to assess for eligibility for IV fibrinolytic therapy, as this intervention has a more immediate impact on reversing the stroke's effects.

Choice D rationale:

Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment is a reasonable nursing intervention to prevent complications such as aspiration and promote optimal cerebral blood flow. However, it is not the most urgent action in this case. The priority should be on assessing and potentially treating the stroke with IV fibrinolytic therapy.