During a fecal impaction removal, an older client complains of feeling dizzy and cold.
Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Instruct the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to apply a warm blanket and massage the client's back.
Insert a gloved finger into the rectum and gently massage the rectal sphincter.
Stop the procedure and observe for a reduction in symptoms before continuing.
Encourage the client to take slow, deep breaths while continuing the procedure.
Encourage the client to take slow, deep breaths while continuing the procedure.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Instructing the UAP to apply a warm blanket and massage the client's back is the appropriate intervention in response to the client's complaints of feeling dizzy and cold during a fecal impaction removal procedure. These symptoms suggest a vasovagal response, which can be managed by keeping the client warm and providing comfort. This intervention helps increase blood flow and alleviate symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
Inserting a gloved finger into the rectum and massaging the rectal sphincter is not the first-line intervention when a client complains of feeling dizzy and cold during a fecal impaction removal. This invasive procedure should be reserved for cases where other interventions have failed, and it is necessary to complete the impaction removal.
Choice C rationale:
Stopping the procedure and observing for a reduction in symptoms before continuing is a reasonable approach, but it does not address the immediate discomfort and distress the client is experiencing. Providing comfort measures, such as applying a warm blanket and massaging the client's back, should be the initial response.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging the client to take slow, deep breaths while continuing the procedure may not be effective in addressing the client's symptoms of dizziness and coldness. The client may require immediate comfort measures to stabilize their condition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
"Antiembolism stockings on, leg exercises performed hourly" indicates that activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis were performed correctly. This combination ensures both mechanical prophylaxis (antiembolism stockings) and physical activity (leg exercises) to prevent blood clots in postoperative patients.
Choice A rationale:
"Leg exercises not performed because of placement of antiembolism hose" is not the correct approach. Leg exercises should be encouraged even when antiembolism stockings are worn, as they have complementary benefits in preventing venous stasis.
Choice B rationale:
"Antiembolism stockings removed hourly during leg exercises" is not recommended. Antiembolism stockings should be worn continuously to be effective in preventing venous stasis.
Choice C rationale:
"Client demonstrates the ability to move all extremities well" is a good sign of the client's mobility but does not confirm that the specific activities to prevent postoperative venous stasis were performed correctly. The combination of stockings and leg exercises is more comprehensive.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4 to 6 hours as needed for temperature greater than 100.5 °F (38 °C). This order is questionable because ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can potentially increase blood pressure, which could be harmful to a patient with hypertension. Furthermore, NSAIDs can mask the symptoms of infection, which could delay the diagnosis and treatment of serious infections.
Choice B rationale:
Enalapril 10 mg every morning. This order is questionable because enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat hypertension. However, ACE inhibitors can cause a dry cough, which could exacerbate the patient’s existing cough due to pneumonia. Additionally, ACE inhibitors can potentially cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), so it’s important to monitor the patient’s electrolyte levels.
Choice C rationale:
Supplemental oxygen 10 L/min via nasal cannula. This order is questionable because a high flow rate of oxygen can potentially cause oxygen toxicity or hyperoxia, which can lead to cellular damage. The typical flow rate for a nasal cannula is between 1-6 L/min. A flow rate of 10 L/min may be too high for this patient, especially without a specified target SpO2 range.
Choice D rationale:
Continuous pulse oximetry. This order is appropriate because it allows for continuous monitoring of the patient’s oxygen saturation levels, which is crucial in a patient with pneumonia and shortness of breath.
Choice E rationale:
Send blood for a complete blood count, electrolytes, blood cultures, and procalcitonin. This order is appropriate because these tests can help monitor the patient’s overall health status and response to treatment.
Choice F rationale:
Admit to the medical floor. This order is appropriate because the patient requires hospitalization for treatment and monitoring due to his pneumonia.
Choice G rationale:
Vital signs every 4 hours. This order is appropriate because it allows for regular monitoring of the patient’s vital signs, which can help detect any changes in his condition.
Choice H rationale:
Chest x-ray now. This order is appropriate because a chest x-ray can help confirm the diagnosis of pneumonia and assess its severity.
Choice I rationale:
Sputum culture and sensitivity. This order is appropriate because it can help identify the specific organism causing the pneumonia and determine its antibiotic sensitivity, which can guide antibiotic therapy.
Choice J rationale:
Levofloxacin 500 mg intravenously every 24 hours. This order is appropriate because levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic commonly used to treat pneumonia.
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