An adult client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a daily, complex handwashing ritual that takes two hours or longer to complete.
The client worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area.
This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?
Addiction.
Phobia.
Compulsion.
Obsession.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Addiction involves a dependence on a substance or behavior that leads to withdrawal symptoms when the substance or behavior is discontinued. The client's handwashing behavior is not related to addiction.
Choice B rationale:
Phobia refers to an irrational and intense fear of a specific object or situation. While the client's avoidance of sitting on chairs in the day area may be related to anxiety, it does not represent a specific phobia.
Choice C rationale:
Compulsion is the correct answer because the client's handwashing ritual is an example of compulsive behavior. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rigid rules. In this case, the client is compelled to engage in the ritual to alleviate anxiety or distress.
Choice D rationale:
Obsession refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images that cause distress and anxiety. While the client's handwashing ritual may be related to obsessive thoughts about cleanliness, the primary clinical behavior being exhibited is the compulsive handwashing itself.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy is not a typical underlying disease pathology associated with a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice B rationale:
Autonomic neuropathy may manifest with a variety of symptoms, including autonomic dysregulation, but it is not a common underlying pathology leading to a waddling gait and frequent falls in a child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice C rationale:
Impaired neuron function can result in various neurological symptoms, but it does not specifically explain the waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice D rationale:
Muscle fiber degeneration is the most appropriate explanation for the symptoms of a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. These symptoms are indicative of a neuromuscular disorder known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which involves progressive muscle weakness and degeneration. DMD is characterized by the loss of muscle fibers and is a common cause of a waddling gait and falls in affected children. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer based on the understanding of the underlying disease pathology.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer is a positive sign of wound healing, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is to reduce pain and neuropathic symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A reduced level of pain is the most relevant indicator of the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin is an antiepileptic medication used to manage neuropathic pain. A decrease in pain indicates that the medication is effectively managing the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Improved visual acuity is not directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin primarily targets neuropathic pain and sensory symptoms, not visual function.
Choice D rationale:
A full volume of pedal pulses is a positive sign of adequate circulation in the lower extremities, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating neuropathy symptoms. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is pain management.
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