A young adult is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle crash. The client has severe pain in the right chest due to impact with the steering wheel. Which is the priority client goal?
Decrease chest pain
Reduce the client's anxiety
Maintain adequate circulating volume
Maintain adequate oxygenation
The Correct Answer is D
A. Decrease chest pain is important but not the highest priority. Managing pain can help with breathing, but oxygenation is the primary concern.
B. Reduce the client's anxiety is secondary to physiological needs. Anxiety can worsen dyspnea, but addressing oxygenation first is more critical.
C. Maintain adequate circulating volume is a priority if there is hemorrhage, but the question does not indicate bleeding. Oxygenation takes precedence in this case.
D. Maintain adequate oxygenation is the priority. Chest trauma can lead to pneumothorax, pulmonary contusion, or other complications that can impair gas exchange. Ensuring adequate oxygenation prevents hypoxia and respiratory failure, which are life-threatening.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Massive blood loss leading to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues
This describes hypovolemic shock, which occurs due to significant blood or fluid loss (e.g., hemorrhage, severe dehydration). In this scenario, there is no evidence of massive blood loss, making hypovolemic shock unlikely.
B. Severe allergic reaction causing systemic vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
This describes anaphylactic shock, which results from an acute allergic reaction (e.g., to food, medication, insect stings). There is no mention of an allergen exposure or symptoms like wheezing, stridor, or urticaria, making anaphylactic shock unlikely.
C. Infection causing a systemic inflammatory response leading to vasodilation and decreased tissue perfusion
This patient is exhibiting signs of septic shock, which occurs as a result of a severe infection leading to systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). The presence of fever, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, and altered mental status strongly suggests sepsis progressing to septic shock.
D. Cardiac failure resulting in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygenation
This describes cardiogenic shock, which occurs due to heart failure (e.g., from myocardial infarction, cardiomyopathy). It leads to low cardiac output, pulmonary congestion, and organ hypoperfusion. This patient’s infection and systemic inflammation suggest septic shock, not a primary cardiac event.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Prepare for immediate abdominal surgery
There is no indication of active hemorrhage or peritonitis at this point. Further assessment is needed before deciding on surgery.
B. Determine if there are any allergies to food or drugs
Allergy history is important, but it is not the immediate priority for this client.
C. Administer antibiotics as ordered after culture results are available
Antibiotics may be needed if infection is suspected, but the priority is assessing kidney function due to the risk of rhabdomyolysis from muscle breakdown.
D. Obtain a urine specimen
Flank pain after a crush injury suggests possible rhabdomyolysis or kidney damage. The urine should be tested for myoglobinuria (tea-colored urine), hematuria, or kidney injury markers.
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