A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?

Vaginal sponge

Abstinence.

Coitus interruptus

Hormonal contraceptives.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

a.   The vaginal sponge has been associated with an increased risk of toxic shock syndrome (TSS), so it should be avoided in women with a history of TSS.
b.   Abstinence is a highly effective contraceptive method but may not be practical for all couples.
c.   This method is not as effective as other contraceptive methods and may not be practical for all couples.
d.   Hormonal contraceptives are generally safe for women with a history of TSS and are an effective method of contraception.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

a. A posterior presentation is when the fetus's back is toward the mother's back, and the fetal heart tones are usually heard on either side of the mother's abdomen.
b. A breech presentation is when the fetus's buttocks or feet are closest to the cervix. The fetal heart tones are usually heard above the umbilicus, at the midline, in a breech presentation.
c. A cephalic presentation is when the fetus's head is closest to the cervix, and the fetal heart tones are usually heard below the umbilicus, in either quadrant.
d. An oblique presentation is when the fetus's head or buttocks are angled toward one side of the pelvis, and the fetal heart tones are usually heard off-center, above or below the umbilicus.
e. A transverse presentation is when the fetus's spine is perpendicular to the mother's spine, and the fetal heart tones are usually heard on one side of the abdomen.

A. Terbutaline B. Oxytocin C. c Indomethacin D. Misoprostol E. Magnesium sulfate

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

a. Terbutaline is a beta-agonist that can be used to relax the uterus and delay delivery in preterm labor.
b. Oxytocin is a hormone that is used to induce labor and is not typically used in preterm labor.
c. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can be used to decrease uterine contractions in preterm labor.
d. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) analog that is used for cervical ripening and is not typically used in preterm labor.
e. Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic agent that can be used to relax the uterus and delay delivery in preterm labor.

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A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse locates the fetal heart tones above the client's umbilicus, at the midline. The nurse should suspect that the fetus is in which of the following presentation?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is admitting a client who has a diagnosis of preterm labor. The nurse anticipal a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

A woman who has five pregnancies with a fetus (or fetuses) not reaching the stage of fetal viability beyond 20 weeks is known as: Select one:

A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS). She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection. On the basis of her history, what contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?

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