A post myocardial infarction patient experiences atrial fibrillation is most at risk for which type of stroke?
Thrombotic stroke
Cerebral aneurysm
Embolic stroke
Hemorrhagic stroke
The Correct Answer is C
A. A thrombotic stroke is typically caused by a blood clot that forms in an artery supplying blood to the brain, usually due to atherosclerosis. While it is a possible cause of stroke, it is not the most likely in this patient with atrial fibrillation.
B. A cerebral aneurysm involves a weakness in the blood vessel wall that can lead to rupture and bleeding, causing a hemorrhagic stroke, but this is not the most common type of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation.
C. Embolic stroke occurs when a clot or other debris (such as a thrombus) breaks off from a distant part of the body (like the heart in atrial fibrillation) and travels to the brain, blocking a cerebral artery. This is the most common type of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation due to the formation of clots in the left atrium that can embolize to the brain.
D. Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by the rupture of a blood vessel in the brain, leading to bleeding. It is not the most common type of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation, though it can occur if there is coagulopathy or anticoagulant therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The postictal phase refers to the period immediately following a seizure when the client is often drowsy, confused, or difficult to arouse. This phase can last for several minutes to hours, depending on the individual.
B. Absence seizures are brief, generalized seizures characterized by staring and loss of awareness, often without a postictal phase.
C. The aura phase refers to the sensory warning or symptoms that precede a seizure, not the post-seizure state.
D. Automatisms are involuntary, repetitive movements (such as lip smacking or hand wringing) that can occur during a seizure, but they do not describe the postictal state.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Vitamin K is the antidote for excessive anticoagulation caused by warfarin. It helps to reverse the effects of warfarin by promoting the synthesis of clotting factors.
B. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, not related to warfarin or its effects.
C. Disulfiram is used to treat alcohol use disorder by causing unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, and is unrelated to warfarin.
D. Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not warfarin.
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