A nurse is caring for a client who has a seizure disorder.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a seizure disorder. What following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Time the duration of the seizure.
Administer supplemental oxygen to the client.
Place a tongue depressor in the client’s mouth.
Turn the client to the side.
Restrain the client.
Correct Answer : A,B,D
Choice A: Time the duration of the seizure
Reason: Timing the duration of a seizure is crucial for several reasons. Firstly, it helps in determining the type of seizure and its severity. Seizures lasting more than 5 minutes are considered medical emergencies and may require immediate intervention to prevent complications such as status epilepticus, which is a prolonged seizure that can cause brain damage or death. By recording the start and end times, healthcare providers can assess the effectiveness of treatments and make necessary adjustments. Additionally, this information is vital for documenting the patient’s medical history and for future reference in managing the condition.
Choice B: Administer supplemental oxygen to the client
Reason: Administering supplemental oxygen is essential during a seizure, especially when the client’s oxygen saturation levels drop below the normal range of 95-100%. In the provided scenario, the client’s oxygen saturation is 86%, which is significantly low and indicates hypoxemia. Hypoxemia can lead to further complications, including brain damage due to insufficient oxygen supply. Providing supplemental oxygen helps maintain adequate oxygen levels in the blood, ensuring that vital organs, including the brain, receive enough oxygen to function properly. This intervention is critical in preventing hypoxic injuries and promoting recovery post-seizure.
Choice C: Place a tongue depressor in the client’s mouth
Reason: Placing a tongue depressor in the client’s mouth during a seizure is not recommended and can be dangerous. This outdated practice was once believed to prevent the client from biting their tongue, but it poses significant risks. The client could bite down on the depressor, causing dental injuries or even breaking the depressor, leading to choking hazards. Modern seizure management guidelines advise against placing any objects in the mouth during a seizure. Instead, the focus should be on ensuring the client’s safety by clearing the area of any harmful objects and positioning them safely.
Choice D: Turn the client to the side
Reason: Turning the client to the side, also known as the recovery position, is a critical intervention during a seizure. This position helps maintain an open airway and reduces the risk of aspiration, which can occur if the client vomits or has excessive saliva. Aspiration can lead to serious respiratory complications, including pneumonia. By positioning the client on their side, gravity helps drain fluids from the mouth, preventing them from entering the airway9. This simple yet effective measure is a standard practice in seizure management to ensure the client’s safety and comfort.
Choice E: Restrain the client
Reason: Restraining a client during a seizure is not recommended and can be harmful. Seizures involve involuntary muscle contractions, and attempting to restrain the client can lead to injuries such as fractures, muscle tears, or dislocations. Additionally, restraint can increase the client’s agitation and stress, potentially worsening the seizure. The appropriate approach is to ensure the client’s safety by removing nearby objects that could cause injury and allowing the seizure to run its course. Gentle guidance and support should be provided without applying force.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Testing new nurses for exposure to tuberculosis is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat diseases early in their course to prevent progression. Testing for tuberculosis exposure helps identify the disease early so that treatment can begin promptly.
Choice B reason: Providing treatment for clients who have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention focuses on managing and improving the quality of life for individuals with chronic diseases. It aims to reduce the impact of the disease and prevent complications.
Choice C reason: Performing screening for sexually transmitted infections is an example of secondary prevention. Screening helps detect infections early, allowing for timely treatment and reducing the spread of the disease.
Choice D reason: Administering influenza immunizations at a local health fair is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent diseases before they occur by reducing risk factors and promoting health. Immunizations help prevent the onset of influenza.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
The correct answer is: The nurse has reviewed the client’s medical record. The client is at risk for developing
Hypotension and Metabolic Acidosis
Choice A: Hyperkalemia
Hyperkalemia refers to an elevated level of potassium in the blood. The normal range for potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. In this case, the client’s potassium level is 5.0 mEq/L, which is at the upper limit of normal. While the client is not currently hyperkalemic, they are at risk due to their condition. However, hyperkalemia is not the most immediate concern based on the provided data. The client’s symptoms and diagnostic results point more directly to other conditions.
Choice B: Hypertension
Hypertension is high blood pressure. The client’s blood pressure is 96/68 mm Hg, which is below the normal range (typically around 120/80 mm Hg). This indicates hypotension rather than hypertension. Given the client’s history of hypertension, the current low blood pressure is concerning and suggests a different issue, such as dehydration or fluid loss from diarrhea.
Choice C: Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia is a condition where potassium levels are below normal. The client’s potassium level is 5.0 mEq/L, which is within the normal range. Therefore, hypokalemia is not a concern in this scenario. The client’s potassium level does not indicate a risk for hypokalemia, and their symptoms do not align with this condition.
Choice D: Hypernatremia
Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood. The normal range for sodium is 136 to 145 mEq/L. The client’s sodium level is 149 mEq/L, which is above the normal range, indicating hypernatremia. This condition can result from dehydration, which is consistent with the client’s symptoms of diarrhea and poor skin turgor. However, while hypernatremia is a concern, it is not the most critical issue compared to hypotension and metabolic acidosis.
Choice E: Hypotension
Hypotension is low blood pressure. The client’s blood pressure is 96/68 mm Hg, which is below the normal range. This low blood pressure, combined with symptoms of weakness, dizziness, and poor skin turgor, suggests significant fluid loss and dehydration. Hypotension is a critical concern as it can lead to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues, potentially causing further complications.
Choice F: Renal Failure
Renal failure refers to the kidneys’ inability to filter waste from the blood effectively. While the client’s urine output is low (30 mL/hr), which could indicate renal impairment, there is no direct evidence from the provided data to confirm renal failure. The client’s basic metabolic profile does not show elevated creatinine or BUN levels, which are typical indicators of renal function.
Choice G: Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition where there is too much acid in the body fluids. The normal range for blood pH is 7.35 to 7.45. The client’s pH is 7.33, which is below the normal range, indicating acidosis. Additionally, the bicarbonate (HCO3) level is 19 mEq/L, which is below the normal range of 21 to 28 mEq/L. These findings confirm metabolic acidosis, likely due to the loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea.
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