A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) results show a pH of 7.35, PaCO2 of 40 mmHg, and HCO3- of 21 mEq/L. What type of acid-base imbalance is present and how would you classify it?
Respiratory alkalosis, fully compensated
Metabolic acidosis, partially compensated
Respiratory acidosis, fully compensated
Metabolic acidosis, fully compensated
The Correct Answer is B
A. Respiratory alkalosis, fully compensated: pH is low normal (7.35), and the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level is low (21 mEq/L), indicating metabolic acidosis, not respiratory alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis would present with a high pH and low PaCO2.
B. Metabolic acidosis, partially compensated: The pH is slightly acidic (7.35), and the bicarbonate level is low (21 mEq/L), indicating metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 level is normal, suggesting partial compensation by the respiratory system, but the body has not fully compensated for the acidosis yet.
C. Respiratory acidosis, fully compensated: Respiratory acidosis would present with an elevated PaCO2 and a low pH, which is not the case here. The PaCO2 is normal at 40 mmHg, so this option is incorrect.
D. Metabolic acidosis, fully compensated: While the client does have metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system has not fully compensated for the acidosis, as evidenced by the normal PaCO2 level. Therefore, the compensation is partial, not full.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Client's age: Age is a non-modifiable risk factor for stroke. As individuals get older, their risk of stroke increases due to vascular changes, but this is not something that can be altered or controlled through interventions or lifestyle changes.
B. History of sickle cell disease: Sickle cell disease increases stroke risk due to its effects on blood viscosity and vessel occlusion, but it is a genetic condition. Therefore, it is considered a non-modifiable risk factor, although managing the disease can help reduce complications.
C. Parent who has cardiovascular disease: Having a parent with cardiovascular disease increases one’s risk for stroke due to inherited genetic predisposition. However, this familial risk is not something the client can change, making it a non-modifiable factor.
D. Hypertension: Hypertension is the most significant modifiable risk factor for stroke. It can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, and monitoring, thereby significantly reducing the client’s risk of future strokes.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is a reduction of blood flow to the kidneys:
Reduced renal perfusion causes prerenal acute kidney injury, not acute tubular necrosis (ATN). In ATN, the injury is intrarenal, specifically within the tubules, rather than being due to reduced blood flow to the kidneys.
B. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is obstruction leading to the filtration system backing up and eventually shutting the kidneys down: This describes postrenal acute kidney injury, typically due to obstruction in the urinary tract, such as stones or enlarged prostate. It is not the underlying mechanism in acute tubular necrosis, which is a type of intrarenal injury.
C. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because inflammatory cells invade the already damaged kidneys: While inflammation may be present in certain renal conditions, acute tubular necrosis primarily involves ischemic or toxic injury to tubular epithelial cells, not immune cell invasion. Inflammatory cell infiltration is more characteristic of interstitial nephritis.
D. The glomerular filtration rate decreases because there is injury to the renal tubular cells:
In acute tubular necrosis, the primary damage is to the tubular epithelial cells, leading to cellular death and sloughing. This impairs the kidney’s ability to reabsorb and filter properly, resulting in a drop in glomerular filtration rate due to tubular dysfunction and obstruction.
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