A nurse is caring for several clients at a community clinic. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A client who has an autoimmune disorder.

A 40-year-old client with hypoglycemia.

A client who does not get much sleep.

A 26-year-old female client who has never given birth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:
While autoimmune disorders are associated with type 1 diabetes, where the immune system attacks the pancreas, they are not typically a direct risk factor for type 2 diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is more closely related to lifestyle factors and insulin resistance.

Choice B reason:
A 40-year-old client with hypoglycemia may be at risk for developing type 2 diabetes. Hypoglycemia can be a sign of pre-diabetes or insulin resistance, where the body's response to insulin is not as effective, leading to fluctuations in blood sugar levels. As individuals age, their risk for type 2 diabetes increases, particularly if they have other risk factors such as a sedentary lifestyle, overweight, or a family history of diabetes.

Choice C reason:
Lack of sleep can contribute to the development of type 2 diabetes by affecting the body's ability to regulate glucose and by increasing insulin resistance. However, without additional risk factors, it is not as strong a predictor of type 2 diabetes as the presence of hypoglycemia or other metabolic conditions.

Choice D reason:
Having never given birth is not a recognized risk factor for type 2 diabetes. While gestational diabetes is a risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes later in life, the absence of pregnancy does not increase the risk.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Mucositis is an inflammation of the mucous membranes lining the digestive tract, which is commonly associated with chemotherapy and radiation therapy, not directly with opioid use. While it can be a concern for cancer patients, it is not a typical side effect of opioids.

Choice B reason:
Bleeding is not a common side effect of opioid medications. While cancer patients may experience bleeding due to various reasons, including the cancer itself or treatment-related issues, opioids do not typically cause bleeding.

Choice C reason:
Opioid-induced constipation (OIC) is a common side effect of opioid medications due to their action on the gastrointestinal tract. Opioids reduce gastrointestinal motility, leading to constipation, which can progress to impaction if not managed properly. This is a manifestation that nurses should anticipate and manage proactively in clients taking opioid medications for pain management.

Choice D reason:
Diarrhea is not typically associated with opioid use. In fact, opioids are more likely to cause constipation rather than diarrhea. Diarrhea may occur as a result of other treatments or conditions but is not a direct side effect of opioids.

A. Hyperplasia B. Metaplasia C. Malignant D. Dysplasia

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Hyperplasia is an increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue, which can lead to its enlargement. While hyperplasia can be a response to a stimulus and is not necessarily precancerous, it does not describe the abnormal changes in the shape, size, and organization of mature cells.

Choice B reason:
Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one differentiated cell type is replaced by another cell type. This process can be a response to chronic irritation and inflammation, and while it may predispose cells to cancerous changes, it is not in itself a precancerous condition.

Choice C reason:
The term 'malignant' refers to cancerous cells that have the ability to invade and destroy nearby tissue and spread to other parts of the body. The description of the cells as 'moderately abnormal' does not indicate that the cells are malignant but rather that they are showing signs of potentially precancerous changes.

Choice D reason:
Dysplasia refers to the presence of abnormal cells within a tissue or organ. It is characterized by changes in cell size, shape, uniformity, arrangement, and structure, particularly when such changes are strongly suggestive of developing neoplasia, or new, abnormal growth. In the context of a Pap smear, dysplasia is indicative of precancerous changes and is the term used to describe the abnormal development of cells on the cervix.

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A nurse is caring for several clients at a community clinic. Which of the following clients is most at risk for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who has Stage IV lung cancer and was prescribed opioid medications for pain management. The client is unable to engage in most physical activities. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse anticipate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client's most recent Pap smear that indicates moderately abnormal cervical cells were present. Based on the description of the cells, which of the following changes of precancerous cell growth to the client's cervix should the nurse identify?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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