A staff nurse is teaching a client who has Addison's disease about the disease process. The client asks the nurse what causes Addison's disease. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
is caused by the lack of production of insulin by the pancreas."
This caused be the overproduction of growth hormone by the pituitary gland."
He is caused by the lack of production of aldosterone by the adrenal gland."
It is caused by the overproduction of parathormone by the parathyroid gland
The Correct Answer is C
A. Incorrect. This statement describes the cause of diabetes mellitus, not Addison's disease.
B. Incorrect. Overproduction of growth hormone is associated with conditions like acromegaly or gigantism, not Addison's disease.
C. Correct. Addison's disease is caused by the lack of production of aldosterone by the adrenal gland.
D. Incorrect. Overproduction of parathormone is associated with hyperparathyroidism, not Addison's disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
1 AM while sleeping: NPH insulin, like Humulin N, typically reaches its peak effectiveness about 4-12 hours after administration. Since the client takes it at 5 PM, the time of greatest risk for hypoglycemia is around 1 AM when the insulin's effects are at their peak. This is a critical period for monitoring blood glucose levels.
B. 8 PM shortly after dinner: By 8 PM, the NPH insulin's effectiveness is not at its peak. It's been about 3 hours since administration, and the insulin is still working to lower blood glucose levels. This time frame is not associated with the highest risk of hypoglycemia.
C. 6 PM shortly after dinner: At 6 PM, it's been only about an hour since the client took the NPH insulin. The insulin is just beginning to take effect, and the risk of hypoglycemia is not as high as it would be later in the night.
D. 11:00 AM, shortly before lunch: By 11:00 AM, the effects of the NPH insulin from the previous evening have largely worn off. This time frame is not associated with a high risk of hypoglycemia related to the evening dose of NPH insulin.
Correct Answer is ["4"]
Explanation
Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) = Volume (mL)
Plugging in the given values, we get:
40 mg / 10 mg/mL = 4 Ml
Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of furosemide per dose.
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