At 8 a.m. the nurse is reviewing patient assignments and notes one of the patients has a current blood glucose of 264. Breakfast is routinely served at 8:30. The following orders are noted in the chart. What action should the nurse take? Accucheck before meals and at bedtime with sliding scale insulin aspart SQ: Glucose 0-150 Administer 0 units; 151-200 Administer 2 units; 201-250 Administer 4 units: 251-300 Administer 6 units: 301-350 Administer 8 units; 351- 400 Administer 10 units; >400 Notify physician.
Provide 2 units insulin aspart 50
Provide 6 units insulin aspart 50
Provide 10 units insin apart SQ
Provide 4 units insulin aspart 50
The Correct Answer is B
A. This option corresponds to the blood glucose range of 151-200. However, the patient's current blood glucose level is 264, which falls into the range of 251-300. Therefore, administering 2 units would not be appropriate in this case.
B. The patient's current blood glucose level is 264, which falls into the range of 251-300. According to the sliding scale insulin aspart orders, for this range, 6 units should be administered. This option aligns with the patient's blood glucose level and the prescribed protocol.
C. This option corresponds to the blood glucose range of 351-400. The patient's blood glucose level of 264 does not fall into this range, so administering 10 units would be excessive and potentially lead to hypoglycemia.
D. This option corresponds to the blood glucose range of 201-250. The patient's current blood glucose level is 264, which falls into the range of 251-300. Therefore, administering 4 units would not be sufficient to address the elevated blood glucose level.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Checking the pedal pulses is important for assessing circulation, but it may not directly address the cause of the muscle spasms. In this case, addressing the electrolyte imbalance is a higher priority.
B. Requesting a relaxant might provide temporary relief for muscle spasms, but it does not address the potential underlying cause. It's important to identify and treat the root issue.
C. Correct. Severe muscle spasms in a client post-thyroidectomy could indicate hypocalcemia, as the parathyroid glands, which regulate calcium levels, can be affected during the surgery. Verifying the most recent calcium level will help determine if this is the cause.
D. Administering an oral potassium supplement addresses a different electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia), which is not typically associated with muscle spasms following a thyroidectomy. Calcium levels are more relevant in this context.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. NPH insulin: NPH insulin, also known as Neutral Protamine Hagedorn, is an intermediate acting insulin. It has a slower onset of action and a longer duration compared to regular insulin. It is not the best choice for treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because it does not act quickly enough to lower dangerously high blood glucose levels in this acute situation.
B. Insulin glargine: Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin. It has a slow, steady release and provides a consistent level of insulin over an extended period. Like NPH insulin, it is not suitable for rapidly lowering blood glucose levels in a DKA emergency.
C. Insulin detemir: Insulin detemir is another long-acting basal insulin similar to glargine. It has a slow onset and provides a sustained release of insulin. It is not the first-line choice for treating DKA due to its slower action.
D. Regular Insulin: Regular insulin, also known as short-acting or fast-acting insulin, has a rapid onset of action. When administered intravenously, it can quickly lower blood glucose levels. This makes it the preferred choice for treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) where prompt action is essential to correct the severe hyperglycemia and associated metabolic imbalances.
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