A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV. Available is furosemide 10 mg/1 mL. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose?
The Correct Answer is ["4"]
Dose (mg) / Concentration (mg/mL) = Volume (mL)
Plugging in the given values, we get:
40 mg / 10 mg/mL = 4 Ml
Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of furosemide per dose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Incorrect. Aging is associated with a decrease in insulin production and a reduction in the speed of insulin release, not an increase.
B. Incorrect. Intolerance of fatty foods is not typically an age-related endocrine change. It may be related to other factors such as digestive issues.
C. Correct. Decreased sensitivity to insulin is a common age-related endocrine change, particularly in individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
D. Incorrect. Lower and prolonged blood glucose levels are not an expected age-related endocrine change. Instead, insulin resistance tends to result in elevated blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Correct. Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia. It is elicited by tapping on the facial nerve, just anterior to the ear, and observing for facial twitching or spasm.
B. Incorrect. Kernig's sign is a test for assessing meningitis and involves flexing the hip and knee at 90-degree angles and then extending the knee. This test is not relevant to the client's reported symptoms.
C. Incorrect. Brudzinski's sign is another test for assessing meningitis. It involves flexing the neck forward and observing for involuntary flexion of the hips and knees. This test is not relevant to the client's reported symptoms.
D. Incorrect. Babinski's sign is used to assess upper motor neuron lesions. It involves stimulating the sole of the foot, and in a positive response, the big toe extends upward. This test is not relevant to the client's reported symptoms.
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