A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 80%. The patient is increasingly pale and restless but follows commands. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate?

Initiation of continuous positive pressure ventilation (CPAP)

Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation

Insertion of a mini-tracheostomy with frequent suctioning

Administration of 100% O2 by non-rebreather mask

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

B. Endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are indicated in patients with respiratory failure who are unable to maintain adequate oxygenation or ventilation with non-invasive interventions. Intubation allows for the delivery of positive pressure ventilation, oxygenation, and airway protection. It also facilitates the clearance of secretions and administration of medications. Given the patient's severe hypoxemia, impending respiratory distress, and deteriorating condition, endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are the most appropriate interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent further deterioration.

A. CPAP is a non-invasive ventilation modality that provides a continuous positive pressure to the airways throughout the respiratory cycle. While CPAP may be beneficial in certain cases of respiratory failure, it may not be sufficient for a patient with severe hypoxemia (SpO2 of 80%) and impending respiratory distress. CPAP is typically indicated for patients with conditions such as obstructive sleep apnea or mild to moderate respiratory failure.

C. Mini-tracheostomy may be considered in certain cases of upper airway obstruction or inadequate airway clearance. However, in this scenario, the patient's hypoxemia is likely due to severe respiratory failure rather than upper airway obstruction. While suctioning may be necessary to clear secretions, it does not address the underlying cause of hypoxemia or provide ventilatory support.

D. While administration of supplemental oxygen is important in the management of hypoxemia, a non- rebreather mask may not be sufficient for a patient with severe hypoxemia and impending respiratory distress. Non-rebreather masks can deliver high concentrations of oxygen but may not provide adequate positive pressure support or airway protection. In this case, endotracheal intubation and positive pressure ventilation are more appropriate to ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. Amiodarone is a Class III antiarrhythmic medication commonly used for the acute management of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. It works by blocking multiple ion channels, prolonging the action potential duration, and slowing conduction in the atria and ventricles. Amiodarone is often used when other interventions such as vagal maneuvers or beta blockers are ineffective or contraindicated. In this scenario, where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic, intravenous amiodarone may be administered to control the ventricular rate and stabilize hemodynamics

A. Bearing down, or the Valsalva maneuver, is a vagal maneuver that can sometimes help slow the heart rate in certain arrhythmias by increasing parasympathetic tone. However, it may not be effective or safe in all situations, especially if the patient is hypotensive or confused. In this scenario, immediate pharmacological intervention is likely needed to control the heart rate and stabilize hemodynamics.

B. Lidocaine is not typically used to treat atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate. Lidocaine is a Class IB antiarrhythmic medication primarily used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. It is not considered a first-line agent for atrial fibrillation and may not effectively control the ventricular rate in this situation.

D. While beta blockers are commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation, they may not be the best choice in this scenario where the patient is hypotensive and symptomatic. Beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure and exacerbate hypotension, especially in patients with compromised hemodynamics. In such cases, other rate-controlling agents like calcium channel blockers or amiodarone may be preferred.

A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally. B. Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dl. C. Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr. D. Start norepinephrine to keep blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. The first intervention should be to administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr to address the immediate concern of hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion.

A. While fever control is important, especially in septic shock, administering acetaminophen should not be the first intervention in a patient with severe hypotension and shock. Addressing the low blood pressure and perfusion is a higher priority.

B. Hyperglycemia is common in critically ill patients, including those with septic shock. However, in this scenario, the patient's severely low blood pressure and signs of shock take precedence over managing hyperglycemia. Insulin therapy can be initiated later once the patient's hemodynamic status is stabilized.

D. Norepinephrine is a vasopressor medication commonly used in septic shock to increase blood pressure and improve perfusion to vital organs. It helps counteract the vasodilation and hypotension characteristic of septic shock.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A patient with respiratory failure has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 80%. The patient is increasingly pale and restless but follows commands. Which intervention will the nurse anticipate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for atrial fibrillation rapid ventricular rate of 130 beat/min with confusion. The client's blood pressure is 87/50. What order should the nurse expect to receive from the provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg. pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104" F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which of the following factors can directly affect cardiac output?

A client tells the nurse that he is concerned because his provider told him he has a heart murmur. The nurse should explain to the client that a murmur

A patient who has neurogenic shock is receiving a dobutamine infusion through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action?

Which is(are) potential result(s) of end-organ damage from chronic hypertension? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse is caring for a client who has pericarditis and reports feeling a new onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. Which of the following assessments should indicate to the nurse that the client may have developed atrial fibrillation?

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure and notes a new onset of the following rhythm on the client's telemetry monitor. Which action would the nurse take first?

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine IV infusion. Which finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted?

The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure with an EF of 40%. The client has a BP of 170/67 with an HR of 60. He currently is in normal sinus rhythm and has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours. Which medication would the nurse expect to give first?