A patient weighing 132 lb is prescribed lorazepam 44 mcg/kg IV to be administered 20 minutes before a scheduled procedure.
The medication is available in a 2 mg/mL vial.
How many mL should the nurse administer? Round off to 2 d.p.
(This is a medical math nd does not require options.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.32"]
Step 1 is to convert the patient’s weight from pounds to kilograms. There are approximately 2.2046 pounds in 1 kilogram. So, the patient’s weight in kilograms is 132 lb ÷ 2.2046 = 59.87 kg.
Step 2 is to calculate the total dose of lorazepam the patient should receive. The prescribed dose is 44 mcg/kg. So, the total dose in micrograms is 44 mcg/kg × 59.87 kg = 2634.28 mcg.
Step 3 is to convert the total dose from micrograms to milligrams. There are 1000 micrograms in 1 milligram. So, the total dose in milligrams is 2634.28 mcg ÷ 1000 = 2.63428 mg.
Step 4 is to calculate the volume of lorazepam solution to administer. The concentration of the solution is 2 mg/mL. So, the volume in milliliters is 2.63428 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 1.31714 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer approximately 1.32 mL of the lorazepam solution, rounding to the nearest hundredth as required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Production of extra platelets is not the primary pathophysiological process in Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). While the body may try to produce more platelets in response to the widespread clotting, this is not the cause of the coagulation problem.
Choice B rationale
Depletion of clotting factors is a key feature of DIC. In the initial phase of DIC, there is an overactive clotting process leading to the formation of small blood clots throughout the body’s blood vessels. This overactive clotting uses up platelets and clotting factors, leading to a state where the body is unable to control bleeding, which is the second phase of DIC34.
Choice C rationale
Inhibition of red blood cell production is not a primary feature of DIC. While DIC can lead to anemia due to blood loss from excessive bleeding, it does not directly inhibit the production of red blood cells.
Choice D rationale
Activation of complement pathways is part of the body’s immune response and is not the primary cause of the coagulation problem in DIC34.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Based on the provided information, the following notations require immediate follow-up:
- Boggy fundus 1 cm above the umbilicus: A boggy (soft) fundus can indicate uterine atony, a condition in which the uterus fails to contract after delivery. This can lead to postpartum hemorrhage, a serious and potentially life-threatening condition.
- Fundus rotated to the right: A displaced fundus can be a sign of a distended bladder, which can interfere with uterine contraction and lead to postpartum hemorrhage.
- Blood pressure: 90/62 mm Hg: While this blood pressure isn’t extremely low, it is on the lower end of normal. Given the potential for postpartum hemorrhage indicated by the other findings, this should be monitored closely.
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