A patient weighing 132 lb is prescribed lorazepam 44 mcg/kg IV to be administered 20 minutes before a scheduled procedure.
The medication is available in a 2 mg/mL vial.
How many mL should the nurse administer? Round off to 2 d.p.
(This is a medical math nd does not require options.)
The Correct Answer is ["1.32"]
Step 1 is to convert the patient’s weight from pounds to kilograms. There are approximately 2.2046 pounds in 1 kilogram. So, the patient’s weight in kilograms is 132 lb ÷ 2.2046 = 59.87 kg.
Step 2 is to calculate the total dose of lorazepam the patient should receive. The prescribed dose is 44 mcg/kg. So, the total dose in micrograms is 44 mcg/kg × 59.87 kg = 2634.28 mcg.
Step 3 is to convert the total dose from micrograms to milligrams. There are 1000 micrograms in 1 milligram. So, the total dose in milligrams is 2634.28 mcg ÷ 1000 = 2.63428 mg.
Step 4 is to calculate the volume of lorazepam solution to administer. The concentration of the solution is 2 mg/mL. So, the volume in milliliters is 2.63428 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 1.31714 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer approximately 1.32 mL of the lorazepam solution, rounding to the nearest hundredth as required.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Initiating bilateral intermittent sequential pneumatic compression devices is not the most appropriate immediate intervention for a patient showing signs of a possible stroke. These devices are typically used to prevent deep vein thrombosis in patients who are immobile, not for stroke management.
Choice B rationale
Raising the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment is the correct intervention. This position can help reduce intracranial pressure and facilitate venous drainage. In the case of a suspected stroke, it’s crucial to maintain proper cerebral blood flow.
Choice C rationale
Maintaining elevated positioning of the dependent joints on the affected side is not the immediate priority in stroke management. While it’s important to prevent contractures and maintain functional positioning, the immediate concern is to stabilize the patient’s condition.
Choice D rationale
Obtaining a focused history to determine recent bleeding and use of anticoagulants is important, but it’s not the first intervention. While this information will be necessary for the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate course of treatment, the immediate priority is to manage the patient’s acute symptoms.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","F"]
Explanation
A.Bone misalignment- The nurse’s notes mention that the collarbone appears out of alignment on the left side. This could indicate a fracture or dislocation and should be investigated further.
B.Decreased range of motion- The client reports an inability to move his left arm. This could be due to the pain or a result of the injury and should be investigated further.
C.Left arm that is cool to touch- Decreased temperature in a limb can indicate poor circulation, which could be a result of the injury. This should be investigated further.
D.Swelling at the site of injury- Swelling and bruising are present on the client’s shoulder. This is a common sign of injury and should be investigated further.
E.Blood pressure of 136/90 mm Hg- While this blood pressure is not extremely high, it is on the higher end of normal. Given the client’s age and the stress of the situation, it would be worth monitoring.
F.Intense pain reported by client- The client reports a pain rating of 10 on a 0 to 10 scale in the left arm. This level of pain is concerning and should be addressed.
G.Oxygen saturation 95% on room air- While an oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range, given the client’s recent trauma and reported nausea, it would be prudent to monitor this closely.
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