The nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving a transfer report from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse for a client who had an exploratory laparotomy.
The PACU nurse provides the following information: "1000 mL normal saline is infusing at 125 mL/hr into the left wrist with 600 mL remaining.
Ondansetron 4 mg intravenously every 8 hours is prescribed for nausea.
The last dose was administered at 0700.
The client is currently describing pain at a level 2 on a 0 to 10 pain scale.
The client has a prescription for hydromorphone 1 mg intravenously every 2 hours as needed for pain.
The last dose was administered at 1000." Which additional information should the PACU nurse report?
History of vomiting at home for 3 days prior to surgery.
Soft abdomen, absent bowel sounds, no bleeding on dressing.
Declining to take ice chips for complaints of dry mouth.
Peripheral pulses present with full range of motion of both legs.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
History of vomiting at home for 3 days prior to surgery. Rationale: This information is relevant to the client's surgical history and may impact their current condition. It is essential to inform the receiving nurse about this history to ensure appropriate postoperative care.
Choice B rationale:
Soft abdomen, absent bowel sounds, no bleeding on dressing. Rationale: While this information is important for assessing the client's postoperative status, it is less urgent than the history of vomiting. The abdominal assessment suggests normal findings after surgery.
Choice C rationale:
Declining to take ice chips for complaints of dry mouth. Rationale: While this information indicates the client's complaint of dry mouth, it is not as critical as the history of vomiting or the assessment of surgical outcomes.
Choice D rationale:
Peripheral pulses present with full range of motion of both legs. Rationale: This information is important but primarily related to the client's vascular and neurological status. It may not be as immediately relevant as the history of vomiting in the context of a recent surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Hyperglycemia is a key symptom of DKA. It occurs when there is an insufficient amount of insulin in the body to allow glucose to enter cells for use as energy. As a result, the body begins to break down fat for fuel, leading to the production of ketones and causing blood glucose levels to rise1. Normal blood glucose levels are between 4.0 to 6.0 mmol/L when fasting and up to 7.8 mmol/L two hours after eating2.
Choice B rationale:
Ketonuria, or the presence of ketones in the urine, is another symptom of DKA. When the body breaks down fat for energy, ketones are produced. If too many ketones build up in the blood, they can spill over into the urine1.
Choice C rationale:
Metabolic acidosis occurs in DKA due to the accumulation of ketones in the blood. Ketones are acidic, and when they build up in the blood, they cause the blood to become more acidic, leading to metabolic acidosis1.
Choice D rationale:
Hypokalemia is not a symptom of DKA. In fact, patients with DKA often have high potassium levels in their blood at presentation because acidosis causes potassium to move from inside the cells into the bloodstream1. However, during treatment for DKA, when insulin is administered and acidosis is corrected, potassium moves back into the cells and can lead to low potassium levels or hypokalemia1.
Choice E rationale:
Dehydration is a common symptom of DKA. High blood glucose levels lead to increased urination as the body tries to get rid of the excess glucose. This can result in dehydration1.
Choice F rationale:
Kussmaul respirations are a type of hyperventilation that occurs in DKA as the body tries to get rid of excess acids (ketones) through the lungs by breathing rapidly and deeply1.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Increasing the supplemental oxygen to 15 L/min via nasal cannula may seem like a logical step given the client’s low oxygen saturation. However, it’s important to note that oxygen therapy should be titrated carefully. Too much oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity, which can cause cellular damage and worsen the client’s condition. Therefore, this is not the priority action.
Choice B rationale:
Notifying the health care provider of the client’s condition is the priority action. The client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, which is below the normal range of 95% to 100%. This indicates that the client is not getting enough oxygen, which can lead to hypoxia and other serious complications. The health care provider needs to be informed immediately so that appropriate interventions can be initiated.
Choice C rationale:
Administering ibuprofen as ordered for fever is important, but it’s not the priority in this situation. While fever can indicate an infection, which could be contributing to the client’s low oxygen saturation, addressing the immediate issue of hypoxia is more critical.
Choice D rationale:
Obtaining a sputum culture from the client could provide valuable information about the type of bacteria causing the pneumonia and guide antibiotic therapy. However, this is not an immediate priority compared to addressing the client’s low oxygen saturation. In summary, while all these actions are important in caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse must prioritize interventions based on their urgency and potential impact on the client’s health status. In this case, notifying the health care provider of the client’s condition is the most critical action.
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