A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks.
The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects.
This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress.
This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness.
The Correct Answer is C
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient's respiratory rate: Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can cause
respiratory depression as a side effect. Therefore, assessing the patient's respiratory rate is crucial before administering the medication to ensure it is within normal limits.
B. The appearance of the incision: While assessing the incision is important for overall surgical site assessment, it's not directly related to the administration of morphine sulfate.
C. The date of the patient's last bowel movement: Bowel movements may be impacted by anesthesia and surgery, but they are not directly relevant to assessing the safety of administering morphine sulfate.
D. The patient's pulse rate: Pulse rate is important for overall assessment of the patient's
condition but may not directly indicate the need for or safety of administering morphine sulfate.
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