A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks.
The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects.
This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress.
This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness.
The Correct Answer is C
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["28"]
Explanation
2 cups of coffee: 2 cups 8 oz/cup = 16 oz
1 soft drink: 12 oz
Total intake from 1500 to 2100 = 16 oz (coffee) + 12 oz (soft drink) = 28 oz
From 2100 to 2300 (2 hours):
No additional intake mentioned in the question.
Total intake from 1500 to 2300 = 28 oz (from 1500 to 2100)
Therefore, the total intake from 1500 to 2300 is 28 ounces.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Decreased urine output is not the primary intended effect of an adrenergic agonist in the
treatment of shock. While adrenergic agonists may increase blood pressure, leading to a decrease in urine output due to vasoconstriction, the primary goal of administering these drugs in shock is to improve tissue perfusion and cardiac output.
B. Increased cardiac output is the primary intended effect of adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. These medications stimulate adrenergic receptors, leading to increased heart rate, contractility, and stroke volume, ultimately improving cardiac output and tissue perfusion.
C. Volume restoration may be a secondary effect of administering fluids along with adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock, but it is not the primary intended effect of the medication
itself.
D. Reduced anxiety is not a primary goal of administering adrenergic agonists in the treatment of shock. While these medications may have anxiolytic effects in certain situations, the primary goal is to improve cardiovascular function and tissue perfusion.
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