A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks.
The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects.
This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress.
This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness.
The Correct Answer is C
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Gtt/min= Volume per hour× Drop factor/ Time in minutes per hour Given:
Volume per hour = 150 mL Drop factor = 20 gtt/mL
Time in minutes per hour = 60 minutes Gtt/min= 150mL/hr×20gtt/mL/60min/hr Gtt/min=50
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Opioids: Opioids typically cause sedation, respiratory depression, and decreased reflexes, which are opposite to the symptoms described.
B. Depressants: Depressants, such as benzodiazepines or alcohol, would likely cause sedation, decreased reflexes, and confusion, but not the symptoms of restlessness, talkativeness, and hyperactive reflexes.
C. Alcohol: While alcohol intoxication can cause confusion, talkativeness, and tachycardia, it is less likely to result in hyperactive reflexes and restlessness as described.
D. Stimulants: Stimulants, such as amphetamines or cocaine, can cause restlessness, hyperactivity, talkativeness, confusion, panic, and tachycardia, matching the symptoms described.
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