A patient has been taking phenobarbital for 2 weeks as part of his therapy for epilepsy. He tells the nurse that he feels tense and that the least little thing bothers him now. Which is the correct explanation for this problem?
These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks.
The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects.
This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress.
This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness.
The Correct Answer is C
A. These are adverse effects that usually subside after a few weeks: While some adverse effects of phenobarbital may diminish over time, the symptoms described by the patient are more likely related to its impact on REM sleep.
B. The drug must be stopped immediately because of possible adverse effects: Stopping phenobarbital abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential rebound seizures; discontinuation should be done gradually under medical supervision.
C. This drug causes deprivation of REM sleep and may cause the inability to deal with normal stress: Phenobarbital is known to disrupt REM sleep, leading to emotional lability, irritability, and difficulty coping with stress.
D. This drug causes the rapid eye movement (REM) sleep period to increase, resulting in nightmares and restlessness: Phenobarbital actually decreases REM sleep, which can lead to disturbances in sleep patterns and mood changes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.6"]
Explanation
To find out how many milliliters (mL) of methylnaltrexone should be administered to achieve a dose of 12 mg, we need to set up a proportion based on the available concentration.
Given:
- Methylnaltrexone concentration: 8 mg per 0.4 mL
- Desired dose: 12 mg
We can set up the proportion as follows:
8 /0.4 = 12 / x
Where ( x ) is the unknown amount of methylnaltrexone in milliliters.
To solve for ( x ), we can cross multiply and then divide:
8x = 0.4 12
8x = 4.8
x = 4.8/8
x = 0.6
Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.6 mL of methylnaltrexone.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia: This instruction is not directly
related to minimizing anticholinergic effects; it's more about managing the timing of medication administration.
B. Use cooling measures to decrease fever: Anticholinergic effects do not typically cause fever, so this instruction is not relevant.
C. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth: Anticholinergic medications can cause dry mouth (xerostomia), and chewing gum can stimulate saliva production, alleviating this side effect.
D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea: Anticholinergic effects can include nausea, but taking an antacid is not a specific strategy for managing this side effect.
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