A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.
The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
Bupropion
Methadone
Disulfiram
Phenobarbital
The Correct Answer is B
A. Bupropion is primarily used as an antidepressant and smoking cessation aid. It is not typically used for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist commonly used in the management of opioid withdrawal. It helps to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and can be used as part of a long-term maintenance program for opioid dependence.
C. Disulfiram is used in the treatment of alcohol dependence by creating unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal.
D. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties. While it can be used to manage certain withdrawal symptoms, such as seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal, it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking
methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.
D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dantrolene injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant: The patient is exhibiting signs of malignant hyperthermia, a potentially life-threatening complication of anesthesia. Dantrolene is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia as it acts as a skeletal muscle relaxant, reducing muscle rigidity and hypermetabolism associated with the condition.
B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and intubation: While the patient is experiencing significant physiological distress, initiating CPR and intubation would be premature without first addressing the underlying cause, which appears to be malignant hyperthermia.
C. An anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine: Anticholinesterase drugs like neostigmine are not indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
D. Naltrexone hydrochloride injection, an opioid reversal drug: Naltrexone is used for opioid overdose reversal and is not appropriate for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
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