A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.
The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?

Bupropion

Methadone

Disulfiram

Phenobarbital

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Bupropion is primarily used as an antidepressant and smoking cessation aid. It is not typically used for opioid withdrawal.

B.   Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist commonly used in the management of opioid withdrawal. It helps to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and can be used as part of a long-term maintenance program for opioid dependence.
C.   Disulfiram is used in the treatment of alcohol dependence by creating unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal.
D.   Phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties. While it can be used to manage certain withdrawal symptoms, such as seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal, it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Monitor the patient's respiratory rate: It's essential to monitor the patient for any adverse effects of morphine administration, particularly respiratory depression.
B. Ensure naloxone is readily available: While naloxone is an antidote for opioid overdose, administering it would depend on the patient's response and any signs of opioid toxicity, which may not be evident at this time.
C. Report the error to the facility through the proper paperwork: Reporting the medication error is crucial for documentation, investigation, and implementation of corrective actions.
D. Inform the patient's health care provider: The healthcare provider should be notified of the medication error to ensure appropriate follow-up and monitoring of the patient.
E. Document the dose of morphine given by the MedSurg nurse: Documenting the medication administration accurately is essential for the patient's medical record and continuity of care.

A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia. B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption. C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school. D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking

methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.

D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.

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A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms. The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.
The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?