A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.
The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
Bupropion
Methadone
Disulfiram
Phenobarbital
The Correct Answer is B
A. Bupropion is primarily used as an antidepressant and smoking cessation aid. It is not typically used for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist commonly used in the management of opioid withdrawal. It helps to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and can be used as part of a long-term maintenance program for opioid dependence.
C. Disulfiram is used in the treatment of alcohol dependence by creating unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal.
D. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties. While it can be used to manage certain withdrawal symptoms, such as seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal, it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Fever: Fever is not a common adverse effect of haloperidol.
B. Intractable hiccups: While hiccups can occur as a side effect of some medications, they are not a commonly reported adverse effect of haloperidol.
C. Excessive salivation: Excessive salivation is not a typical adverse effect of haloperidol.
D. Extrapyramidal symptoms: Haloperidol, as a first-generation antipsychotic, is known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for these adverse effects is essential during treatment with haloperidol.
Correct Answer is ["50"]
Explanation
Gtt/min= Volume per hour× Drop factor/ Time in minutes per hour Given:
Volume per hour = 150 mL Drop factor = 20 gtt/mL
Time in minutes per hour = 60 minutes Gtt/min= 150mL/hr×20gtt/mL/60min/hr Gtt/min=50
Therefore, the nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver 50 gtt/min
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