A patient in a rehabilitation center is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.
The nurse expects to administer which drug as part of the treatment?
Bupropion
Methadone
Disulfiram
Phenobarbital
The Correct Answer is B
A. Bupropion is primarily used as an antidepressant and smoking cessation aid. It is not typically used for opioid withdrawal.
B. Methadone is a synthetic opioid agonist commonly used in the management of opioid withdrawal. It helps to alleviate withdrawal symptoms and can be used as part of a long-term maintenance program for opioid dependence.
C. Disulfiram is used in the treatment of alcohol dependence by creating unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed. It is not indicated for opioid withdrawal.
D. Phenobarbital is a barbiturate with sedative and anticonvulsant properties. While it can be used to manage certain withdrawal symptoms, such as seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal, it is not typically used as a first-line treatment for opioid withdrawal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by sudden, brief muscle jerks or twitches. These
movements are usually more pronounced and may involve multiple muscle groups compared to the described behavior, which involves a brief pause in activity without muscle jerks.
B. Absence seizures are characterized by brief episodes of staring or blanking out, often lasting for a few seconds. During an absence seizure, the child may appear to be staring into space, unaware of their surroundings. After the seizure, the child typically resumes their previous
activity without any memory of the event.
C. Status epilepticus refers to a prolonged seizure or a series of seizures without full recovery of consciousness between seizures. This condition is a medical emergency and presents with continuous or recurrent seizures without regaining consciousness.
D. Tonic-clonic seizures involve a sequence of tonic (stiffening) and clonic (jerking) phases, often accompanied by loss of consciousness and sometimes preceded by an aura. The described behavior does not fit the pattern of a tonic-clonic seizure, which typically involves more noticeable motor activity and loss of consciousness.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dantrolene injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant: The patient is exhibiting signs of malignant hyperthermia, a potentially life-threatening complication of anesthesia. Dantrolene is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia as it acts as a skeletal muscle relaxant, reducing muscle rigidity and hypermetabolism associated with the condition.
B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and intubation: While the patient is experiencing significant physiological distress, initiating CPR and intubation would be premature without first addressing the underlying cause, which appears to be malignant hyperthermia.
C. An anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine: Anticholinesterase drugs like neostigmine are not indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
D. Naltrexone hydrochloride injection, an opioid reversal drug: Naltrexone is used for opioid overdose reversal and is not appropriate for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
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