When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia
The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before
The 40-year-old patient who is to have a kidney stone removed
The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal
The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago
The Correct Answer is C
A. The 21-year-old patient who has never had surgery before: While lack of previous surgery experience may contribute to anxiety, it doesn't inherently increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
B. The 40-year-old patient who is to have kidney stone removed: While the type of surgery may influence anesthesia considerations, being 40 years old alone doesn't significantly increase the risk of altered response to anesthesia.
C. The 82-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal: Advanced age is a significant risk factor for altered response to anesthesia due to age-related changes in physiology, metabolism, and drug clearance.
D. The 35-year-old patient who stopped smoking 8 years ago: While smoking history can impact anesthesia considerations, stopping smoking 8 years ago likely reduces the associated risks compared to current smokers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The drug level is at a toxic level, and the dosage needs to be reduced. Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels above 20 mcg/mL are considered to be in the toxic range.
Symptoms of phenytoin toxicity can include nystagmus, ataxia, slurred speech, and confusion. Therefore, if a patient's phenytoin level is 23 mcg/mL, the nurse should be concerned about potential toxicity and consult with the healthcare provider to adjust the dosage.
B. The patient's seizures should be under control if she is also taking a second antiepileptic drug.
While combination therapy with multiple antiepileptic drugs can help control seizures, a phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is still concerning for toxicity and requires intervention.
C. The patient is at risk for seizures because the drug level is not at a therapeutic level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is actually above the therapeutic range and is more indicative of toxicity rather than subtherapeutic levels.
D. The patient's seizures should be under control because this is a therapeutic drug level. A phenytoin level of 23 mcg/mL is not within the therapeutic range but rather in the toxic range, so the patient may experience symptoms of toxicity rather than having adequate seizure control.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The patient's respiratory rate: Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that can cause
respiratory depression as a side effect. Therefore, assessing the patient's respiratory rate is crucial before administering the medication to ensure it is within normal limits.
B. The appearance of the incision: While assessing the incision is important for overall surgical site assessment, it's not directly related to the administration of morphine sulfate.
C. The date of the patient's last bowel movement: Bowel movements may be impacted by anesthesia and surgery, but they are not directly relevant to assessing the safety of administering morphine sulfate.
D. The patient's pulse rate: Pulse rate is important for overall assessment of the patient's
condition but may not directly indicate the need for or safety of administering morphine sulfate.
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