A nurse receives a telephone call from a parent reporting that their school-age child has a nosebleed and that they cannot stop the bleeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the parent?

"Place a warm, wet washcloth over your child's forehead and the bridge of their nose."

"Use your thumb and forefinger to apply pressure to the sides of your child's nose."

"Have your child lie down and turn their head to the side for 10 minutes."

“Tell your child to blow their nose gently, and then sit down and tilt their head backward."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "Place a warm, wet washcloth over your child's forehead and the bridge of their nose." Warm compresses may actually dilate blood vessels, which can worsen the bleeding. Cold compresses are preferred to help constrict vessels.
B. "Use your thumb and forefinger to apply pressure to the sides of your child's nose." This is the correct first-aid measure for epistaxis. The parent should pinch the soft part of the nose continuously for 10–15 minutes while the child leans forward.
C. "Have your child lie down and turn their head to the side for 10 minutes." Lying down can increase blood flow to the nose and may cause blood to be swallowed, which can lead to nausea or vomiting.
D. “Tell your child to blow their nose gently, and then sit down and tilt their head backward." Tilting the head back can cause blood to drain into the throat, increasing the risk of aspiration and stomach upset. Leaning forward is the proper position.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Diphenhydramine. Urticaria (hives) is a common allergic reaction often caused by medications like antibiotics. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, is used to treat allergic reactions by blocking histamine receptors, reducing itching, swelling, and rash.
B. Hydralazine. This is an antihypertensive medication used to treat high blood pressure, not allergic reactions. It has no effect on histamine or allergic symptoms.
C. Naloxone. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It does not treat allergic reactions like urticaria unless the cause is opioid-induced (which is not indicated here).
D. Protamine. Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin. It has no role in treating allergic reactions to antibiotics.

A. "I can adjust the time and schedule for when it's convenient for you." B. "I can infuse the medication at a faster rate." C. “I have up to 2 hours after the usual scheduled time to give you this medication." D. “I can start the medication 30 minutes earlier."

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The nurse cannot adjust IV antibiotic schedules solely for convenience, as consistent timing is necessary to maintain therapeutic drug levels.
B. Infusing vancomycin at a faster rate is unsafe and increases the risk of complications such as red man syndrome.
C. This is incorrect because the 2-hour administration window applies to non–time-critical medications. IV antibiotics like vancomycin are time-critical and must be given within 30 minutes of the scheduled time.
D. Time-critical medications, such as IV antibiotics, must be administered within 30 minutes before or after the scheduled time, making this the most accurate response.

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A nurse receives a telephone call from a parent reporting that their school-age child has a nosebleed and that they cannot stop the bleeding. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the parent?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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