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A nurse is caring for a client at the clinic.

Exhibits

Complete the following sentence by

The client is at risk for

due to
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

An hCG level of 30,000 IU/L is significantly elevated and may suggest a molar pregnancy, especially when values are higher than expected for gestational age. In a molar pregnancy (hydatidiform mole), trophoblastic tissue proliferates abnormally, producing excessive hCG. This level, in combination with normal hemoglobin and hematocrit, makes other causes like spontaneous or induced abortion less likely.

Key Takeaways:

  • Extremely elevated hCG levels can indicate gestational trophoblastic disease (molar pregnancy).
  • Molar pregnancy is a nonviable pregnancy characterized by abnormal trophoblast proliferation.
  • Normal hemoglobin and hematocrit reduce the likelihood of current bleeding or miscarriage.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Vital signs. The client has a significantly elevated heart rate (110/min) and elevated blood pressure (178/82 mm Hg), both of which can be associated with autonomic responses in dumping syndrome. The dizziness and desire to lie down after eating are also classic symptoms. These signs reflect the body’s reaction to rapid gastric emptying and fluid shifts.
B. Prescribed diet. While a bland, soft diet is generally safe post-gastrectomy, it may not prevent dumping syndrome unless it includes specific modifications like low carbohydrate intake and small, frequent meals. However, this option alone does not directly indicate dumping syndrome.
C. Skin appearance. The client is noted to be diaphoretic and pale, which are common symptoms of dumping syndrome due to the vasomotor response and hypoglycemia that can follow rapid gastric emptying.
D. Blood glucose level. The client's fasting blood glucose dropped to 65 mg/dL, which is below the normal range. Hypoglycemia is a hallmark of late dumping syndrome, resulting from excessive insulin release after rapid carbohydrate absorption in the small intestine.
E. WBC count. The WBC count is within normal range (9,000/mm³) and does not indicate dumping syndrome or an infectious process. It is not relevant in this context.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Administer packed RBCs. While blood transfusion may be urgently needed for hemorrhagic shock, it cannot be initiated until vascular access is established. It is important, but not the first step.
B. Obtain a specimen for ABG analysis. Arterial blood gases can provide valuable information about respiratory and metabolic status, but they are not the top priority in an unstable trauma patient.
C. Place a large-bore IV catheter in an upper extremity. Establishing IV access is the priority in trauma care, as it allows for rapid fluid resuscitation and medication administration. This intervention supports all subsequent emergency treatments.
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. A catheter may be necessary for monitoring urine output as a sign of perfusion, but this is not the first action in a trauma situation where immediate stabilization is the priority.

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