A nurse on a postpartum unit is receiving change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?
A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rh(D) immune globulin.
A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness.
A client who gave birth 12 hr ago and reports an increase in urinary output.
A client who gave birth 8 hr ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
A client who gave birth 1 day ago and needs Rh(D) immune globulin should be seen soon but not necessarily first. Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative mothers with Rh- positive infants to prevent isoimmunization in future pregnancies.
Choice B rationale:
A client who gave birth 3 days ago and reports breast fullness is likely experiencing normal postpartum breast engorgement. This client can be attended to after the client with more urgent symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
A client who gave birth 12 hours ago and reports an increase in urinary output might have diuresis, which is a common postpartum physiological change. Although this requires assessment, it is not as urgent as the client in choice D.
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should see the client who gave birth 8 hours ago and is saturating a perineal pad every hour first because excessive postpartum bleeding could indicate hemorrhage, a potentially life-threatening complication. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial in this situation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Initiate continuous monitoring of the FHR. For a client with placenta previa, continuous fetal heart rate (FHR) monitoring is essential to assess the baby's well-being due to the risk of fetal distress from reduced oxygen supply
Choice A reason:
Continuous FHR monitoring is a standard care practice for clients with placenta previa to promptly detect any signs of fetal distress and intervene as necessary.
Choice B reason:
Betamethasone is typically administered to enhance fetal lung maturity before 34 weeks of gestation, not for placenta previa. Its use at 35 weeks is less common unless there's a risk of preterm birth within 7 days and the patient hasn't received a previous course.
Choice C reason:
Checking the cervix can induce bleeding and is contraindicated in placenta previa because it may disturb the placental site and exacerbate bleeding.
Choice D reason:
Misoprostol is used for labor induction or to treat postpartum hemorrhage. It is not indicated for placenta previa management and can cause uterine contractions leading to increased bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Terbutaline is a medication commonly used to stop preterm labor by relaxing the uterine muscles. However, it is contraindicated in clients with heart disease or certain cardiac conditions, as it can cause cardiovascular side effects such as increased heart rate, palpitations, and potential arrhythmias.
Choice B rationale:
Cervical dilation of 2 cm is a typical sign of preterm labor, and the prescription for terbutaline is appropriate to prevent further cervical dilation and delay delivery.
Choice C rationale:
A gestational age of 34 weeks indicates preterm labor, which is precisely the scenario where terbutaline would be administered to halt labor progression and extend the pregnancy.
Choice D rationale:
Allergy to penicillin is unrelated to the administration of terbutaline, as they are different medications with distinct mechanisms of action and side effects.
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